A client has been diagnosed with heart failure. One of the main overall objectives of the management of heart failure is which of the following?

Achieve a blood pressure of 120/80

Reduce the workload on the heart

Help the client walk briskly on a treadmill at 4 to 5 miles an hour

Eliminate all sodium and fat from the diet

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason : Achieving a blood pressure of 120/80 is a general goal for overall cardiovascular health, but it is not specific to the management of heart failure. While controlling blood pressure is important in heart failure, the primary objective is to reduce the heart's workload¹.

Choice B reason : Reducing the workload on the heart is a key objective in managing heart failure. This can be achieved through medications that improve heart function, lifestyle changes, and sometimes surgical interventions. The goal is to improve the heart's efficiency and reduce symptoms such as shortness of breath and fatigue¹.

Choice C reason : Encouraging the client to walk briskly on a treadmill at 4 to 5 miles an hour may not be appropriate for all heart failure patients, especially without medical supervision. Exercise recommendations should be personalized based on the individual's condition and tolerance¹.

Choice D reason : While dietary modifications are part of heart failure management, completely eliminating all sodium and fat is not practical or recommended. Instead, a balanced diet with controlled sodium intake is advised to help manage fluid retention¹.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason : This statement is misleading. While heparin does need to reach a therapeutic level to be effective, it does not directly dissolve existing clots. Heparin's primary action is to prevent the formation of new clots and the extension of existing clots by inhibiting certain factors in the coagulation cascade.

Choice B reason : While a pharmacist can provide detailed information about medications, it is the nurse's responsibility to educate and inform the client about the effects of their treatment. Therefore, this response would not be appropriate.

Choice C reason : This is the most accurate response. Heparin works by inhibiting the formation of fibrin, which is essential for clot formation. It does not have the ability to dissolve existing clots but can prevent new ones from forming and existing ones from getting larger.

Choice D reason : Oral medications such as warfarin or direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) may be used after heparin to maintain anticoagulation; however, they also do not dissolve clots. The body's natural fibrinolytic system is responsible for breaking down clots over time.

A. Plantar reflex B. Kernig's sign C. Brudzinski's sign D. Sunsetting eyes

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason : The plantar reflex, also known as the Babinski sign, is elicited by stroking the lateral aspect of the sole of the foot. A positive response is indicated by dorsiflexion of the big toe and fanning of the other toes. This reflex is normal in infants but may indicate central nervous system damage in adults¹. However, it is not specifically associated with meningeal irritation.

Choice B reason : Kernig's sign is a clinical sign wherein the patient experiences severe stiffness of the hamstrings causing an inability to straighten the leg when the hip is flexed to 90 degrees. This sign can indicate meningeal irritation but is not as early a sign as Brudzinski's sign².

Choice C reason : Brudzinski's sign is one of the most indicative signs of meningeal irritation. When the neck is flexed, there is involuntary flexion of the hips and knees. This reflex is an early sign of meningeal irritation and is considered a critical manifestation in assessing meningitis following head trauma².

Choice D reason : Sunsetting eyes, characterized by the downward deviation of the eyes, is associated with increased intracranial pressure, which can occur in conditions like hydrocephalus. While it may be seen in the context of brain injury, it is not a specific sign of meningeal irritation³.

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A client has been diagnosed with heart failure. One of the main overall objectives of the management of heart failure is which of the following?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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