A client diagnosed with end-stage kidney injury receives continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). The nurse observes that the dialysate drainage fluid is cloudy. What is the priority intervention?

Administer a bolus of IV normal saline as ordered

Flush the peritoneal catheter with normal saline

Assess the client for signs of infection

Continue to monitor the color of the dialysate

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: Administering IV normal saline addresses fluid volume deficits, not cloudy dialysate, which suggests peritonitis in CAPD. Saline does not treat infection or clarify drainage. Without addressing the potential infection, complications like sepsis or peritoneal membrane damage may occur, making this intervention irrelevant to the finding.

Choice B reason: Flushing the peritoneal catheter with saline risks introducing bacteria or dislodging clots, worsening potential infection. Cloudy dialysate indicates peritonitis, requiring assessment and likely antibiotics, not flushing. This action could compromise the catheter’s integrity and is not a standard intervention for suspected peritonitis in CAPD.

Choice C reason: Cloudy dialysate is a hallmark of peritonitis in CAPD, caused by bacterial infection. Assessing for fever, abdominal pain, or rebound tenderness confirms infection, enabling prompt antibiotic treatment. Early intervention prevents sepsis or peritoneal membrane scarring, which could necessitate dialysis modality change, making this the priority action.

Choice D reason: Continuing to monitor without assessing for infection delays treatment of potential peritonitis, a serious CAPD complication. Cloudy dialysate requires immediate evaluation, as untreated infection can lead to sepsis, peritoneal damage, or death. Passive monitoring risks patient safety, making this an inadequate response to a critical finding.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Allowing a client with suicidal comments to leave against medical advice is unsafe, as it risks self-harm without immediate intervention. Providing resources does not address acute suicide risk, which requires inpatient stabilization to ensure safety, making this action inappropriate in the context of expressed suicidal ideation.

Choice B reason: Contacting family to persuade the client to stay does not address immediate suicide risk. While family support may be helpful, it lacks legal authority to prevent discharge and does not ensure safety, making it less effective than initiating a commitment for a client with suicidal intent.

Choice C reason: A 302 involuntary commitment is appropriate for a client expressing suicidal ideation, indicating imminent danger to self. This legal action ensures safety through inpatient evaluation and treatment, preventing self-harm. Mental health laws prioritize protection in such cases, making this the most appropriate nursing action.

Choice D reason: Calling security to detain the client is coercive and lacks legal basis without a formal commitment process. It may escalate agitation and violate autonomy. A 302 commitment is the proper legal mechanism to ensure safety for a suicidal client, making detention by security inappropriate.

A. Advance the catheter 2 to 4 cm further into the peritoneal cavity B. Infuse 50 mL of additional dialysate C. Aspirate from the catheter using a 60-mL syringe D. Reposition the client to facilitate drainage

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Advancing the catheter further risks perforation or malposition, potentially damaging peritoneal tissues or organs. Slow drainage is often due to positional obstruction or constipation, not catheter depth. This invasive action requires medical orders and imaging confirmation, making it inappropriate as a first step in addressing slow drainage.

Choice B reason: Infusing additional dialysate worsens abdominal distension and does not address slow drainage. It may increase intra-abdominal pressure, causing discomfort or complications like hernia. The issue is outflow obstruction, not insufficient dialysate, so adding more fluid is counterproductive and could exacerbate the client’s condition.

Choice C reason: Aspirating with a syringe is not standard practice and risks introducing infection or damaging the catheter. It does not address underlying causes like positional obstruction or fibrin clots. Medical evaluation or specialized interventions like heparin instillation are needed for persistent drainage issues, making this action inappropriate.

Choice D reason: Repositioning the client facilitates drainage by relieving positional obstructions, such as catheter kinking or omental wrapping, common in peritoneal dialysis. Changing positions (e.g., side-lying or sitting) promotes gravity-assisted flow, reducing abdominal girth and improving exchange efficiency. This non-invasive action is the safest and most effective initial step.

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A client diagnosed with end-stage kidney injury receives continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). The nurse observes that the dialysate drainage fluid is cloudy. What is the priority intervention?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease is completing an exchange during peritoneal dialysis. The nurse observes that the peritoneal fluid is draining slowly and that the client’s abdomen is increasing in girth. What is the nurse’s most appropriate action?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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A client diagnosed with end-stage kidney injury receives continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). The nurse observes that the dialysate drainage fluid is cloudy. What is the priority intervention?