The order is to infuse 50ml of piggyback antibiotic over 1 hour. The set calibration has a microdrip drop factor. What the flow rate in drops per minute?
The Correct Answer is ["50"]
The correct answer is 50 drops per minute
Explanation:
Step 1 is identify the total volume to be infused
50 mL
Step 2 is identify the time in minutes
1 hour = 60 minutes
Step 3 is identify the drop factor for a microdrip set
Microdrip = 60 drops per mL
Step 4 is multiply the volume by the drop factor
50 × 60 = 3000 drops
Step 5 is divide total drops by time in minutes
(3000 ÷ 60) = 50
Result = 50 drops per minute
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Administering IV normal saline addresses fluid volume deficits, not cloudy dialysate, which suggests peritonitis in CAPD. Saline does not treat infection or clarify drainage. Without addressing the potential infection, complications like sepsis or peritoneal membrane damage may occur, making this intervention irrelevant to the finding.
Choice B reason: Flushing the peritoneal catheter with saline risks introducing bacteria or dislodging clots, worsening potential infection. Cloudy dialysate indicates peritonitis, requiring assessment and likely antibiotics, not flushing. This action could compromise the catheter’s integrity and is not a standard intervention for suspected peritonitis in CAPD.
Choice C reason: Cloudy dialysate is a hallmark of peritonitis in CAPD, caused by bacterial infection. Assessing for fever, abdominal pain, or rebound tenderness confirms infection, enabling prompt antibiotic treatment. Early intervention prevents sepsis or peritoneal membrane scarring, which could necessitate dialysis modality change, making this the priority action.
Choice D reason: Continuing to monitor without assessing for infection delays treatment of potential peritonitis, a serious CAPD complication. Cloudy dialysate requires immediate evaluation, as untreated infection can lead to sepsis, peritoneal damage, or death. Passive monitoring risks patient safety, making this an inadequate response to a critical finding.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Renal failure impairs erythropoietin production, a hormone stimulating red blood cell synthesis, leading to anemia, not an increased red blood cell count. Reduced glomerular filtration exacerbates toxin accumulation, further suppressing bone marrow activity, making an elevated red blood cell count unlikely in this condition.
Choice B reason: In renal failure, kidneys fail to excrete potassium, leading to hyperkalemia, not decreased serum potassium. Hyperkalemia can cause cardiac arrhythmias due to altered membrane potentials. A decreased potassium level is more associated with conditions like diuretic use or vomiting, not renal failure.
Choice C reason: Increased serum creatinine is a hallmark of renal failure, as kidneys cannot filter creatinine, a muscle metabolism byproduct. Elevated levels reflect reduced glomerular filtration rate, indicating kidney dysfunction. This is a reliable marker for assessing renal failure severity and progression, making it an expected finding.
Choice D reason: Renal failure typically causes hypocalcemia, not increased serum calcium, due to impaired vitamin D activation and phosphate retention, which binds calcium. Hypercalcemia is rare and may occur in other conditions like hyperparathyroidism, not renal failure, where calcium homeostasis is disrupted by kidney dysfunction.
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