The order is to infuse 50ml of piggyback antibiotic over 1 hour. The set calibration has a microdrip drop factor. What the flow rate in drops per minute?
The Correct Answer is ["50"]
The correct answer is 50 drops per minute
Explanation:
Step 1 is identify the total volume to be infused
50 mL
Step 2 is identify the time in minutes
1 hour = 60 minutes
Step 3 is identify the drop factor for a microdrip set
Microdrip = 60 drops per mL
Step 4 is multiply the volume by the drop factor
50 × 60 = 3000 drops
Step 5 is divide total drops by time in minutes
(3000 ÷ 60) = 50
Result = 50 drops per minute
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Restraining and forcibly administering medication violates patient autonomy and ethical principles, potentially escalating agitation in psychosis. It risks physical harm and legal issues, as forced medication requires specific legal orders (e.g., involuntary commitment). Non-invasive approaches like negotiation or assessing refusal reasons are safer and more ethical.
Choice B reason: Stating that refusal prevents improvement is coercive and undermines autonomy. It fails to explore reasons for refusal, such as side effect concerns or psychosis-related mistrust, which are common in severe psychosis. This approach may damage trust and hinder therapeutic alliance, making it inappropriate as an initial action.
Choice C reason: Accepting the client’s refusal respects autonomy while prioritizing safety, critical in psychosis where agitation is common. This allows exploration of refusal reasons (e.g., paranoia) and alternative interventions, maintaining a therapeutic environment. Monitoring ensures no immediate harm, making this the most ethical and safe initial response.
Choice D reason: Obtaining a discharge order for nonadherence is premature and inappropriate, as refusal does not warrant immediate discharge. Psychosis requires ongoing assessment and management, and discharge could exacerbate symptoms or risk harm, making this action contrary to the goal of stabilizing the client’s mental health.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: The right to do no harm (nonmaleficence) is an ethical principle, not a specific client right. While premature restraints may cause harm, this option does not directly address the legal right violated, which is the use of least restrictive interventions, making it less precise.
Choice B reason: Informed consent involves agreeing to treatments, not the use of restraints, which is a safety intervention. While clients should be informed, premature restraint use violates the right to least restrictive care, not consent, as restraints are not typically consensual interventions.
Choice C reason: Confidential and respectful care relates to privacy and dignity, not the method of intervention. Premature restraints violate the principle of using less invasive options first, not confidentiality or respect, making this right irrelevant to the specific violation described in the scenario.
Choice D reason: The right to least restrictive treatment requires using non-invasive interventions (e.g., de-escalation) before restraints. Premature restraint use violates this right, as mental health laws mandate the least coercive measures to ensure safety, prioritizing patient autonomy and minimizing harm, making this the correct answer.
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