A client with a history of chronic renal failure receives hemodialysis treatment three times per week through an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in the left arm. Which priority intervention should the nurse include in the care plan?
Take the client’s blood pressure in the left arm
Keep the AV fistula site dry
Keep the AV fistula wrapped in gauze
Assess the AV fistula for bruit and thrill
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Taking blood pressure in the left arm with an AV fistula risks compressing the fistula, potentially causing thrombosis or damage. This can impair dialysis access, leading to inadequate treatment and complications like uremia or fluid overload. Blood pressure should be measured in the opposite arm to protect the fistula.
Choice B reason: Keeping the AV fistula site dry is important to prevent infection, as moisture can promote bacterial growth. However, it is not the priority over ensuring fistula patency, which is critical for effective dialysis. Infection prevention is secondary to confirming the fistula’s functionality to avoid life-threatening dialysis interruptions.
Choice C reason: Wrapping the AV fistula in gauze is not standard practice unless post-surgical or infected. Excessive wrapping may obscure the site, hindering patency assessments, and could increase infection risk if not changed properly. This action is less critical than ensuring the fistula’s functionality for dialysis.
Choice D reason: Assessing the AV fistula for bruit (whooshing sound) and thrill (vibration) confirms patency, ensuring it is functional for dialysis. A non-patent fistula prevents effective toxin and fluid removal, leading to uremia, hyperkalemia, or fluid overload. This assessment is the priority to ensure life-sustaining dialysis can proceed without complications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Allowing a client with suicidal comments to leave against medical advice is unsafe, as it risks self-harm without immediate intervention. Providing resources does not address acute suicide risk, which requires inpatient stabilization to ensure safety, making this action inappropriate in the context of expressed suicidal ideation.
Choice B reason: Contacting family to persuade the client to stay does not address immediate suicide risk. While family support may be helpful, it lacks legal authority to prevent discharge and does not ensure safety, making it less effective than initiating a commitment for a client with suicidal intent.
Choice C reason: A 302 involuntary commitment is appropriate for a client expressing suicidal ideation, indicating imminent danger to self. This legal action ensures safety through inpatient evaluation and treatment, preventing self-harm. Mental health laws prioritize protection in such cases, making this the most appropriate nursing action.
Choice D reason: Calling security to detain the client is coercive and lacks legal basis without a formal commitment process. It may escalate agitation and violate autonomy. A 302 commitment is the proper legal mechanism to ensure safety for a suicidal client, making detention by security inappropriate.
Correct Answer is ["3.2"]
Explanation
The correct answer is 3.2 mL
Explanation:
Step 1 is identify the total dose ordered
800 mg
Step 2 is identify the concentration after reconstitution
Each mL contains 250 mg
Step 3 is divide the total dose by the concentration per mL
(800 ÷ 250) = 3.2
Result = 3.2 mL
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