A client who has depression is admitted to treatment on a voluntary basis. While in the hospital, the client makes several comments about wanting to “end it all.” The client decides they want to leave against medical advice. Which of the following would be the most appropriate action by the nursing staff?
Allow the client to leave with community resources for follow-up care
Contact the client’s family to request they convince the client to stay
Initiate a 302 commitment
Call security and ask them to detain the client
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Allowing a client with suicidal comments to leave against medical advice is unsafe, as it risks self-harm without immediate intervention. Providing resources does not address acute suicide risk, which requires inpatient stabilization to ensure safety, making this action inappropriate in the context of expressed suicidal ideation.
Choice B reason: Contacting family to persuade the client to stay does not address immediate suicide risk. While family support may be helpful, it lacks legal authority to prevent discharge and does not ensure safety, making it less effective than initiating a commitment for a client with suicidal intent.
Choice C reason: A 302 involuntary commitment is appropriate for a client expressing suicidal ideation, indicating imminent danger to self. This legal action ensures safety through inpatient evaluation and treatment, preventing self-harm. Mental health laws prioritize protection in such cases, making this the most appropriate nursing action.
Choice D reason: Calling security to detain the client is coercive and lacks legal basis without a formal commitment process. It may escalate agitation and violate autonomy. A 302 commitment is the proper legal mechanism to ensure safety for a suicidal client, making detention by security inappropriate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["50"]
Explanation
The correct answer is 50 drops per minute
Explanation:
Step 1 is identify the total volume to be infused
50 mL
Step 2 is identify the time in minutes
1 hour = 60 minutes
Step 3 is identify the drop factor for a microdrip set
Microdrip = 60 drops per mL
Step 4 is multiply the volume by the drop factor
50 × 60 = 3000 drops
Step 5 is divide total drops by time in minutes
(3000 ÷ 60) = 50
Result = 50 drops per minute
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Hypoglycemia involves low blood glucose, causing symptoms like shakiness or confusion, not muscle weakness or arrhythmias. Hypertonic glucose and insulin would worsen hypoglycemia by increasing glucose uptake, and sodium bicarbonate is irrelevant. These symptoms and treatments align with hyperkalemia, not low glucose levels, in renal failure.
Choice B reason: Hyperkalemia, common in acute renal failure due to impaired potassium excretion, causes muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias by altering membrane potentials. Hypertonic glucose and insulin drive potassium into cells, while sodium bicarbonate corrects acidosis, stabilizing cardiac membranes, making this the targeted complication for the prescribed treatment.
Choice C reason: Hypernatremia (high sodium) causes neurological symptoms like confusion, not muscle weakness or arrhythmias. The prescribed treatments do not address sodium levels; insulin and glucose manage potassium, and bicarbonate corrects acidosis. Hypernatremia is not a primary concern in acute renal failure with these symptoms.
Choice D reason: Hypokalemia (low potassium) causes muscle weakness and arrhythmias but is rare in acute renal failure, where hyperkalemia is typical due to reduced excretion. The prescribed treatments aim to lower potassium, not increase it, making hypokalemia an incorrect target for this therapy in the context of renal failure.
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