Which of the following would the nurse expect to find when reviewing the laboratory test results of a client with renal failure?

Increased red blood cell count

Decreased serum potassium level

Increased serum creatinine level

Increased serum calcium level

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: Renal failure impairs erythropoietin production, a hormone stimulating red blood cell synthesis, leading to anemia, not an increased red blood cell count. Reduced glomerular filtration exacerbates toxin accumulation, further suppressing bone marrow activity, making an elevated red blood cell count unlikely in this condition.

Choice B reason: In renal failure, kidneys fail to excrete potassium, leading to hyperkalemia, not decreased serum potassium. Hyperkalemia can cause cardiac arrhythmias due to altered membrane potentials. A decreased potassium level is more associated with conditions like diuretic use or vomiting, not renal failure.

Choice C reason: Increased serum creatinine is a hallmark of renal failure, as kidneys cannot filter creatinine, a muscle metabolism byproduct. Elevated levels reflect reduced glomerular filtration rate, indicating kidney dysfunction. This is a reliable marker for assessing renal failure severity and progression, making it an expected finding.

Choice D reason: Renal failure typically causes hypocalcemia, not increased serum calcium, due to impaired vitamin D activation and phosphate retention, which binds calcium. Hypercalcemia is rare and may occur in other conditions like hyperparathyroidism, not renal failure, where calcium homeostasis is disrupted by kidney dysfunction.

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Correct Answer is ["3.2"]

Explanation

The correct answer is 3.2 mL
Explanation:
Step 1 is identify the total dose ordered
800 mg

Step 2 is identify the concentration after reconstitution
Each mL contains 250 mg

Step 3 is divide the total dose by the concentration per mL
(800 ÷ 250) = 3.2

Result = 3.2 mL

A. Allow the client to leave with community resources for follow-up care B. Contact the client’s family to request they convince the client to stay C. Initiate a 302 commitment D. Call security and ask them to detain the client

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Allowing a client with suicidal comments to leave against medical advice is unsafe, as it risks self-harm without immediate intervention. Providing resources does not address acute suicide risk, which requires inpatient stabilization to ensure safety, making this action inappropriate in the context of expressed suicidal ideation.

Choice B reason: Contacting family to persuade the client to stay does not address immediate suicide risk. While family support may be helpful, it lacks legal authority to prevent discharge and does not ensure safety, making it less effective than initiating a commitment for a client with suicidal intent.

Choice C reason: A 302 involuntary commitment is appropriate for a client expressing suicidal ideation, indicating imminent danger to self. This legal action ensures safety through inpatient evaluation and treatment, preventing self-harm. Mental health laws prioritize protection in such cases, making this the most appropriate nursing action.

Choice D reason: Calling security to detain the client is coercive and lacks legal basis without a formal commitment process. It may escalate agitation and violate autonomy. A 302 commitment is the proper legal mechanism to ensure safety for a suicidal client, making detention by security inappropriate.

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Which of the following would the nurse expect to find when reviewing the laboratory test results of a client with renal failure?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The physician orders mefoxin (Cefoxitin) 800 mg IV Q 8 hours. To reconstitute the medications the instructions state to add 7.5 mL of NSS for a total of 8 mL with each mL containing 250 mg. How many millilitres will be given?

Correct Answer is ["3.2"]

Explanation

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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