An adult client was put in restraints after all other attempts to reduce aggression have failed. Which is required now that restraints have been instituted by the nurse?
A documented nursing assessment every hour
Constant one-on-one supervision during the first hour and then video monitoring
A face-to-face evaluation by the psychiatrist within one hour of restraint
Review of the appropriateness of restraints every hour
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Hourly nursing assessments are important for monitoring safety in restraints but are not the primary legal requirement. Assessments ensure no physical harm, but psychiatric evaluation within one hour is mandated to confirm restraint necessity, making this option secondary in priority for immediate post-restraint protocol.
Choice B reason: Constant supervision may be used, but transitioning to video monitoring after one hour does not meet strict regulatory standards for restraints. Face-to-face psychiatric evaluation within one hour is required to assess ongoing need and ensure patient rights, making this option less accurate for legal compliance.
Choice C reason: Regulatory standards (e.g., CMS, Joint Commission) mandate a face-to-face evaluation by a psychiatrist within one hour of initiating restraints to assess necessity, safety, and alternatives. This ensures compliance with mental health laws, protects patient rights, and prevents overuse, making it the required action.
Choice D reason: Reviewing restraint appropriateness hourly is part of ongoing care but is not the primary requirement. A psychiatrist’s face-to-face evaluation within one hour takes precedence to ensure legal and ethical use, as it confirms the clinical justification for restraints, making this option secondary.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: White crystals (uremic frost) and yellowish skin in CKD indicate severe uremia due to toxin accumulation from impaired kidney function. Applying medicated lotion addresses skin symptoms but does not treat the underlying uremia, which can lead to life-threatening complications like metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia, or encephalopathy. This action is secondary to addressing systemic toxicity through dialysis.
Choice B reason: Elevated BUN, creatinine, and uremic frost signify advanced CKD with uremia, requiring urgent dialysis to remove toxins and excess fluids. Notifying the provider ensures timely intervention to prevent complications such as seizures, coma, or cardiac arrhythmias due to electrolyte imbalances and toxin buildup, making this the priority action for patient safety.
Choice C reason: A cardiac monitor detects arrhythmias, which may occur in CKD due to hyperkalemia or fluid overload. However, monitoring alone does not address the root cause of uremia. Without dialysis to correct metabolic imbalances, arrhythmias may persist or worsen, making this action less urgent than initiating dialysis to stabilize the patient’s condition.
Choice D reason: Assessing a fistula for bruit and thrill ensures vascular access patency for dialysis. While important, it is not the priority when uremic symptoms are present, as dialysis orders must be secured first to address the acute uremic state and prevent life-threatening complications like encephalopathy or cardiac arrest due to toxin accumulation.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Silence allows the client to process trauma at their own pace, creating a safe, non-pressurized environment. Fearful clients may need time to feel secure before speaking. This technique fosters trust, encourages emotional expression, and is particularly effective in trauma, where verbalization can be challenging due to psychological distress.
Choice B reason: Giving information provides facts but may overwhelm a fearful client, who may not be ready to process details post-trauma. This technique is less effective for engagement, as it does not address emotional barriers or encourage self-expression, which are critical for therapeutic interaction in trauma recovery.
Choice C reason: Focusing directs the conversation to specific topics, which can feel intrusive for a traumatized client. It assumes readiness to discuss, potentially increasing anxiety or withdrawal. This technique is less effective than silence, which allows the client to initiate dialogue when emotionally prepared, fostering trust.
Choice D reason: Broad opening encourages the client to choose topics but may be too vague for a fearful, traumatized client, who may feel overwhelmed by the lack of structure. Silence is more effective, as it provides space for emotional processing without pressuring the client to verbalize prematurely.
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