The healthcare provider prescribes haloperidol 10 mg for a client with severe psychosis, but the client refuses the medication. Which initial nursing action is appropriate?

Restrain the client and give the medication intramuscularly

Inform the client that refusing the medication means not getting any better

Accept the client’s decision and continue to maintain safety

Obtain a discharge order for nonadherence to the medication regimen

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: Restraining and forcibly administering medication violates patient autonomy and ethical principles, potentially escalating agitation in psychosis. It risks physical harm and legal issues, as forced medication requires specific legal orders (e.g., involuntary commitment). Non-invasive approaches like negotiation or assessing refusal reasons are safer and more ethical.

Choice B reason: Stating that refusal prevents improvement is coercive and undermines autonomy. It fails to explore reasons for refusal, such as side effect concerns or psychosis-related mistrust, which are common in severe psychosis. This approach may damage trust and hinder therapeutic alliance, making it inappropriate as an initial action.

Choice C reason: Accepting the client’s refusal respects autonomy while prioritizing safety, critical in psychosis where agitation is common. This allows exploration of refusal reasons (e.g., paranoia) and alternative interventions, maintaining a therapeutic environment. Monitoring ensures no immediate harm, making this the most ethical and safe initial response.

Choice D reason: Obtaining a discharge order for nonadherence is premature and inappropriate, as refusal does not warrant immediate discharge. Psychosis requires ongoing assessment and management, and discharge could exacerbate symptoms or risk harm, making this action contrary to the goal of stabilizing the client’s mental health.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Improved nutritional status could cause weight gain but is unlikely in AKI with minimal urine output. AKI patients often have anorexia or dietary restrictions, and weight gain from nutrition would not align with oliguria, which suggests fluid retention rather than increased tissue mass from improved nutrition.

Choice B reason: A 3-pound weight gain in 48 hours with minimal urine output is clinically significant in AKI, indicating fluid retention. Normal weight fluctuations are minimal, and this rapid gain, coupled with oliguria, suggests impaired kidney function, potentially leading to fluid overload complications like hypertension or pulmonary edema.

Choice C reason: Early AKI recovery involves increased urine output (diuresis phase), not minimal output. Weight gain with oliguria indicates ongoing kidney dysfunction, not recovery. Recovery would show improved glomerular filtration and urine production, reducing fluid retention, making this finding inconsistent with AKI recovery.

Choice D reason: In AKI, minimal urine output (oliguria) reflects impaired kidney filtration, leading to fluid retention. A 3-pound weight gain in 48 hours corresponds to approximately 1.5 liters of fluid, indicating fluid overload. This can cause hypertension, pulmonary edema, or heart failure, making fluid retention the most likely explanation.

A. Advance the catheter 2 to 4 cm further into the peritoneal cavity B. Infuse 50 mL of additional dialysate C. Aspirate from the catheter using a 60-mL syringe D. Reposition the client to facilitate drainage

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Advancing the catheter further risks perforation or malposition, potentially damaging peritoneal tissues or organs. Slow drainage is often due to positional obstruction or constipation, not catheter depth. This invasive action requires medical orders and imaging confirmation, making it inappropriate as a first step in addressing slow drainage.

Choice B reason: Infusing additional dialysate worsens abdominal distension and does not address slow drainage. It may increase intra-abdominal pressure, causing discomfort or complications like hernia. The issue is outflow obstruction, not insufficient dialysate, so adding more fluid is counterproductive and could exacerbate the client’s condition.

Choice C reason: Aspirating with a syringe is not standard practice and risks introducing infection or damaging the catheter. It does not address underlying causes like positional obstruction or fibrin clots. Medical evaluation or specialized interventions like heparin instillation are needed for persistent drainage issues, making this action inappropriate.

Choice D reason: Repositioning the client facilitates drainage by relieving positional obstructions, such as catheter kinking or omental wrapping, common in peritoneal dialysis. Changing positions (e.g., side-lying or sitting) promotes gravity-assisted flow, reducing abdominal girth and improving exchange efficiency. This non-invasive action is the safest and most effective initial step.

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The healthcare provider prescribes haloperidol 10 mg for a client with severe psychosis, but the client refuses the medication. Which initial nursing action is appropriate?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease is completing an exchange during peritoneal dialysis. The nurse observes that the peritoneal fluid is draining slowly and that the client’s abdomen is increasing in girth. What is the nurse’s most appropriate action?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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