A 60-year-old patient with a history of hypertension presents to the clinic for a routine check-up. Which of the following findings would indicate poor management of hypertension?
(Select All that Apply.)
Frequent headaches
Blood pressure consistently at goal
Normal renal function tests
Steady weight with no recent gain
Proteinuria on urinalysis
Left ventricular hypertrophy on echocardiogram
Absence of retinal changes on fundoscopic exam
Correct Answer : E,F
A. Frequent headaches can be a symptom of hypertension but are not specific to poorly managed hypertension.
B. Blood pressure consistently at goal indicates good management of hypertension.
C. Normal renal function tests suggest that there has been no damage to the kidneys, a common consequence of poorly controlled hypertension.
D. Steady weight with no recent gain suggests good management of overall health, which can contribute to better blood pressure control.
E. Proteinuria indicates kidney damage, often a result of uncontrolled hypertension.
F. Left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is a sign of chronic hypertension and indicates poor management, as it results from the heart working harder to pump blood against increased pressure.
G. Absence of retinal changes on fundoscopic exam indicates that there is no evidence of hypertensive retinopathy, suggesting good hypertension management.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["320"]
Explanation
Net fluid balance = Total intake - Total output
Rationale:
Total intake:
IV fluids: 1,000 mL
Antibiotic infusion: 250 mL
Oral intake: 3 cups x 240 mL = 720 mL
Total intake = 1,000 + 250 + 720 = 1,970 mL Total output:
Urine: 1,200 mL
Vomiting: 300 mL Wound drainage: 150 mL
Total output = 1,200 + 300 + 150 = 1,650 mL
Net fluid balance = 1,970 mL - 1,650 mL = +320 mL
The patient has a positive fluid balance of 320 mL.
Correct Answer is ["90"]
Explanation
Calculate the required dosage: 5 mg/kg/hour × 72 kg = 360 mg/hour.
Determine the volume required based on the concentration: 360 mg ÷ (400 mg/100 mL) = 90 mL/hour.
The correct infusion rate is 90 mL/hour for this patient.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
