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A 60-year-old patient with a history of hypertension presents to the clinic for a routine check-up. Which of the following findings would indicate poor management of hypertension?
(Select All that Apply.)

Frequent headaches

Blood pressure consistently at goal

Normal renal function tests

Steady weight with no recent gain

Proteinuria on urinalysis

Left ventricular hypertrophy on echocardiogram

Absence of retinal changes on fundoscopic exam

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : E,F

A.   Frequent headaches can be a symptom of hypertension but are not specific to poorly managed hypertension.
B.   Blood pressure consistently at goal indicates good management of hypertension.
C.   Normal renal function tests suggest that there has been no damage to the kidneys, a common consequence of poorly controlled hypertension.
D.   Steady weight with no recent gain suggests good management of overall health, which can contribute to better blood pressure control.
E.   Proteinuria indicates kidney damage, often a result of uncontrolled hypertension.
F.   Left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) is a sign of chronic hypertension and indicates poor management, as it results from the heart working harder to pump blood against increased pressure.
G.   Absence of retinal changes on fundoscopic exam indicates that there is no evidence of hypertensive retinopathy, suggesting good hypertension management.

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Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E"]

Explanation

A. Paresthesia, or abnormal sensations such as tingling or numbness, is a common symptom in patients with multiple sclerosis due to nerve damage.
B. Nausea and vomiting are not typical symptoms of multiple sclerosis but may occur in specific cases due to other complications.
C. Dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, can occur in multiple sclerosis as a result of nerve damage affecting the muscles involved in swallowing.
D. Spasticity, or muscle stiffness, is common in multiple sclerosis due to damage to the nerve pathways that control muscle movement.
E. Vertigo, or dizziness, is a frequent symptom of multiple sclerosis due to lesions in the brainstem affecting balance.

A. Furosemide B. Metoprolol C. Natalizumab D. Pregabalin

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Furosemide is a diuretic and is not associated with PML.
B. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker and does not cause PML.
C. Natalizumab is an immunosuppressant used for multiple sclerosis and has been linked to the development of PML, a serious brain infection.
D. Pregabalin is used for neuropathic pain and does not carry a risk for PML.

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A 60-year-old patient with a history of hypertension presents to the clinic for a routine check-up. Which of the following findings would indicate poor management of hypertension? (Select All that Apply.)

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A nurse is assessing a client who has multiple sclerosis. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse anticipate? (Select All that Apply.)

Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E"]

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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A 60-year-old patient with a history of hypertension presents to the clinic for a routine check-up. Which of the following findings would indicate poor management of hypertension?
(Select All that Apply.)