A 60-year-old male client has been diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 2 and chronic heart failure for many years, for which he takes hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ), digoxin, and metformin. After his wife died last year, his health declined, and he was admitted to a local nursing home.
For the past 6 months, he has experienced cognitive decline, most likely due to hypoxia and/or multi-infarct dementia. The nurse referred the client to the registered dietitian nutritionist because of a 10-lb (4.5-kg) weight loss in 2 weeks, anorexia, and increasing blood glucose levels. The registered dietitian nutritionist prescribed oral supplemental feedings, and his metformin dose was increased by the primary health care provider. Today the charge nurse receives the client's latest lab work.
Based on the physical assessment findings, medical diagnoses, and lab test values, the nurse suspects that the client most likely has , which requires emergency management with
Choose the most likely options for the information missing from the statement by selecting from the lists of options provided.
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"D"}
Choice A rationale: The lab results and clinical picture, such as weight loss, anorexia, and high blood glucose levels, point more toward a hyperglycemic state rather than severe hypoglycemia.
Choice B rationale: The client's elevated blood glucose levels, weight loss, and anorexia suggest a hyperglycemic state, possibly hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state, which requires fluid management and insulin to address the severe dehydration and high blood glucose levels.
Choice C rationale: Although high glucose levels are evident, the absence of significant acidosis (as seen in diabetic ketoacidosis) and extreme ketosis makes this diagnosis less likely.
Choice D rationale: The lab values and clinical presentation do not strongly align with a primary respiratory acidosis diagnosis, which typically involves changes in pH and carbon dioxide levels.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Propranolol, a beta-blocker used for high blood pressure and other cardiovascular conditions, is known to have potential side effects of sexual dysfunction, including erectile dysfunction (ED).
Choice B rationale: Ranitidine (Zantac) is an H2 blocker used for acid reflux and isn't typically associated with causing ED.
Choice C rationale: Atorvastatin (Lipitor), a statin used for high cholesterol, isn't commonly associated with causing ED.
Choice D rationale: Metformin (Glucophage), used for type 2 diabetes, is not typically linked to causing ED.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale: This is a positive Trousseau's sign, which indicates hypocalcemia or tetany. It is not related to meningitis or meningeal irritation.
Choice B rationale: Kernig's sign is indicated when there is resistance and pain with knee extension and hip flexion, suggesting meningeal irritation.
Choice C rationale: This is a positive Homan's sign, which indicates deep vein thrombosis or phlebitis. It is not related to meningitis or meningeal irritation.
Choice D rationale: This is a sign of nuchal rigidity, which indicates meningeal irritation, but it is not specific to Kernig's sign. Nuchal rigidity can also be caused by other conditions such as cervical arthritis or muscle spasm.
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