A 60-year-old male client has been diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 2 and chronic heart failure for many years, for which he takes hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ), digoxin, and metformin. After his wife died last year, his health declined, and he was admitted to a local nursing home.
For the past 6 months, he has experienced cognitive decline, most likely due to hypoxia and/or multi-infarct dementia. The nurse referred the client to the registered dietitian nutritionist because of a 10-lb (4.5-kg) weight loss in 2 weeks, anorexia, and increasing blood glucose levels. The registered dietitian nutritionist prescribed oral supplemental feedings, and his metformin dose was increased by the primary health care provider. Today the charge nurse receives the client's latest lab work.
Based on the physical assessment findings, medical diagnoses, and lab test values, the nurse suspects that the client most likely has , which requires emergency management with
Choose the most likely options for the information missing from the statement by selecting from the lists of options provided.
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"D"}
Choice A rationale: The lab results and clinical picture, such as weight loss, anorexia, and high blood glucose levels, point more toward a hyperglycemic state rather than severe hypoglycemia.
Choice B rationale: The client's elevated blood glucose levels, weight loss, and anorexia suggest a hyperglycemic state, possibly hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state, which requires fluid management and insulin to address the severe dehydration and high blood glucose levels.
Choice C rationale: Although high glucose levels are evident, the absence of significant acidosis (as seen in diabetic ketoacidosis) and extreme ketosis makes this diagnosis less likely.
Choice D rationale: The lab values and clinical presentation do not strongly align with a primary respiratory acidosis diagnosis, which typically involves changes in pH and carbon dioxide levels.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Correct. The statement is accurate because developing confusion could be a sign of a serious condition like severe electrolyte imbalance or dehydration, requiring immediate medical attention.
Choice B rationale: Incorrect. Fluid intake should not be arbitrarily limited without medical advice, especially for a client with diabetes insipidus. Maintaining a consistent fluid intake is crucial, and any changes should be guided by a healthcare provider.
Choice C rationale: Correct. Weighing oneself at the same time every day is a good practice for monitoring fluid balance and identifying sudden changes that may indicate a problem.
Choice D rationale: Incorrect. Desmopressin doses should be administered as prescribed. The medication's administration should be consistent with the healthcare provider's instructions or the medication guide, not arbitrarily altered.
Choice E rationale: Correct. Keeping a log of fluid intake and urine output is important for managing diabetes insipidus effectively and allows for informed adjustments in fluid intake or medication dosage.
Choice F rationale: Incorrect. Adjusting medication dosage without consulting a healthcare provider is not safe. While increased urination is a symptom of diabetes insipidus, the client should consult their healthcare provider if their symptoms persist or worsen, rather than self-adjusting the medication dose.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Metronidazole is not typically used to treat genital warts caused by HPV.
Choice B rationale: HPV can be transmitted through various forms of sexual contact, including oral sex.
Choice C rationale: Condoms reduce but do not eliminate the risk of HPV transmission. Choice D rationale: Genital warts caused by HPV increase the risk of cervical cancer,
necessitating regular Pap smears for monitoring and early detection.
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