A 60-year-old male client has been diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 2 and chronic heart failure for many years, for which he takes hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ), digoxin, and metformin. After his wife died last year, his health declined, and he was admitted to a local nursing home.
For the past 6 months, he has experienced cognitive decline, most likely due to hypoxia and/or multi-infarct dementia. The nurse referred the client to the registered dietitian nutritionist because of a 10-lb (4.5-kg) weight loss in 2 weeks, anorexia, and increasing blood glucose levels. The registered dietitian nutritionist prescribed oral supplemental feedings, and his metformin dose was increased by the primary health care provider. Today the charge nurse receives the client's latest lab work.
Based on the physical assessment findings, medical diagnoses, and lab test values, the nurse suspects that the client most likely has , which requires emergency management with
Choose the most likely options for the information missing from the statement by selecting from the lists of options provided.
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"D"}
Choice A rationale: The lab results and clinical picture, such as weight loss, anorexia, and high blood glucose levels, point more toward a hyperglycemic state rather than severe hypoglycemia.
Choice B rationale: The client's elevated blood glucose levels, weight loss, and anorexia suggest a hyperglycemic state, possibly hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state, which requires fluid management and insulin to address the severe dehydration and high blood glucose levels.
Choice C rationale: Although high glucose levels are evident, the absence of significant acidosis (as seen in diabetic ketoacidosis) and extreme ketosis makes this diagnosis less likely.
Choice D rationale: The lab values and clinical presentation do not strongly align with a primary respiratory acidosis diagnosis, which typically involves changes in pH and carbon dioxide levels.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale: PCOS is not typically associated with genetic cancerous mutations.
Choice B rationale: Insulin resistance and hyperinsulinemia are commonly associated with PCOS, contributing to its pathophysiology.
Choice C rationale: While cortisol abnormalities can cause similar symptoms, it's not a primary finding in PCOS.
Choice D rationale: PCOS often involves hormonal imbalances, but it's not characterized by an estrogen deficit.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale: This is a sign of worsening diabetes insipidus.
Choice B rationale: This shows signs of overhydration, as urine output is high and specific gravity is high.
Choice C rationale: This is a sign of worsening diabetes insipidus.
Choice D rationale: Vasopressin is a hormone that helps the kidneys retain water and concentrate urine. Diabetes insipidus is a condition where the body does not produce enough vasopressin or does not respond to it, resulting in excessive urination and diluted urine. The goal of vasopressin therapy is to reduce urine output and increase urine concentration, which indicates that the kidneys are functioning properly and the body is hydrated.
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