A 25-year-old gravida 2, para 2-0-0-2 gave birth 4 hours ago to a 9-lb, 7-ounce boy after augmentation of labor with Pitocin.
She puts on her call light and asks for her nurse right away, stating, “I’m bleeding a lot.” The most likely cause of afterbirth hemorrhage in this woman is:

Retained placental fragments.

Unrepaired vaginal lacerations.

Uterine atony

Puerperal infection

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Uterine atony.

This is when the uterus does not contract enough to stop the bleeding from the placental site after delivery. It is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, accounting for up to 80% of cases. Uterine atony can be caused by factors such as prolonged or augmented labor, large baby, multiple pregnancies, infection, or retained placenta.

The woman in question has some risk factors for uterine atony, such as a large baby and augmentation of labor with Pitocin.

The other choices are wrong because:

A . Retained placental fragments: This is when parts of the placenta remain attached to the uterine wall and prevent it from contracting properly. It is the second most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage.

However, there is no indication in the question that the woman had any difficulty with the delivery of the placenta or that it was incomplete

B. Unrepaired vaginal lacerations: This is when there are tears or cuts in the vagina or cervix that cause bleeding. It is a less common cause of postpartum hemorrhage.

However, there is no indication in the question that the woman had any trauma during delivery or that she was examined for lacerations

D. Puerperal infection: This is when there is an infection in the uterus or other parts of the reproductive tract after delivery.

It can cause fever, pain, and bleeding. It is a rare cause of postpartum hemorrhage.

However, there is no indication in the question that the woman had any signs or symptoms of infection, such as fever, chills, or foul-smelling discharge.

Normal ranges for blood loss after delivery are less than 500 mL for vaginal birth and less than 1000 mL for C-section.

Any amount above these thresholds can be considered postpartum hemorrhage and requires prompt evaluation and treatment.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Verbalizing the importance of monitoring for medication side effects.

Graves’ disease is an autoimmune disorder that causes hyperthyroidism, which means the thyroid gland produces too much thyroid hormone. This can lead to symptoms such as weight loss, increased appetite, nervousness, irritability, insomnia, heat intolerance, and palpitations. The medication methimazole is used to treat Graves’ disease by blocking the synthesis of thyroid hormone. However, methimazole can also cause serious side effects such as liver damage, agranulocytosis (low white blood cell count), and allergic reactions.

Therefore, the priority nursing goal for a 14 year old diagnosed with Graves’ disease is to verbalize the importance of monitoring for medication side effects and reporting them to the health care provider.

Choice A is wrong because relieving constipation is not a priority goal for Graves’ disease. Constipation is more likely to occur in hypothyroidism, which is the opposite of hyperthyroidism.

Choice B is wrong because allowing the adolescent to make decisions about whether or not to take medication is not a priority goal for Graves’ disease. While it is important to respect the adolescent’s autonomy and involve them in their care plan, they also need to understand the risks and benefits of taking medication and the consequences of not taking it.

Choice D is wrong because developing alternative educational goals is not a priority goal for Graves’ disease. Graves’ disease can affect the academic performance of adolescents due to cognitive and emotional changes caused by hyperthyroidism.

However, this does not mean that they need to change their educational goals. They may need extra support and accommodations from their teachers and parents to cope with their condition and achieve their potential.

A. Inappropriate, because of child’s age B. A way to establish rapport C. Too distracting when cooperation is important D. Acceptable, if there is adequate time

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A way to establish rapport. Doing a simple magic trick using gauze is a way to gain the child’s trust and attention, and to make the dressing change less stressful and more fun. This is appropriate for a 5-year-old child who is in the stage of initiative versus guilt according to Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development.

Choice A is wrong because 5-year-old children are curious and imaginative, and they enjoy magic tricks and fantasy play.

Choice C is wrong because a simple magic trick is not too distracting, but rather a way to engage the child and reduce anxiety.

Choice D is wrong because a simple magic trick is not inappropriate due to the child’s cognitive development. According to Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, 5-year-old children are in the preoperational stage, which means they can use symbols and language to represent objects and events.

A magic trick using gauze is a symbolic representation of something else, which the child can understand and appreciate.

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A 25-year-old gravida 2, para 2-0-0-2 gave birth 4 hours ago to a 9-lb, 7-ounce boy after augmentation of labor with Pitocin. She puts on her call light and asks for her nurse right away, stating, “I’m bleeding a lot.” The most likely cause of afterbirth hemorrhage in this woman is:

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

What is the priority nursing goal for a 14-year-old diagnosed with Graves’ disease?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The nurse is meeting a 5-year-old child for the first time and would like the child to cooperate during a dressing change. The nurse decides to do a simple magic trick using gauze. This should be interpreted as:

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Medications used to manage postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) include (Select all that apply.):.

When caring for an infant with an upper respiratory tract infection and elevated temperature, which appropriate nursing intervention should the nurse implement?

The nurse administers vitamin K to the newborn for which reason?

A woman is in her seventh month of pregnancy. She has been reporting nasal congestion and occasional epistaxis. The nurse suspects that:

The nurse is assessing a child with acute epiglottitis. Examining the child’s throat by using a tongue depressor might precipitate which symptom or condition?

Which intervention should be included in the plan of care for an infant with the nursing diagnosis of Excess Fluid Volume related to congestive heart failure?

A macrosomic infant is born after a difficult forceps-assisted delivery. After stabilization, the infant is weighed, and the birth weight is 4550 g (9 lbs, 6 ounces). The nurse’s most appropriate action is to:

A parent asks the nurse why self-monitoring of blood glucose is being recommended for her child with diabetes. The nurse should base the explanation on what information?

A 25-year-old gravida 2, para 2-0-0-2 gave birth 4 hours ago to a 9-lb, 7-ounce boy after augmentation of labor with Pitocin.
She puts on her call light and asks for her nurse right away, stating, “I’m bleeding a lot.” The most likely cause of afterbirth hemorrhage in this woman is: