A 25-year-old gravida 2, para 2-0-0-2 gave birth 4 hours ago to a 9-lb, 7-ounce boy after augmentation of labor with Pitocin.
She puts on her call light and asks for her nurse right away, stating, “I’m bleeding a lot.” The most likely cause of afterbirth hemorrhage in this woman is:
Retained placental fragments.
Unrepaired vaginal lacerations.
Uterine atony
Puerperal infection
The Correct Answer is C
Uterine atony.
This is when the uterus does not contract enough to stop the bleeding from the placental site after delivery. It is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, accounting for up to 80% of cases. Uterine atony can be caused by factors such as prolonged or augmented labor, large baby, multiple pregnancies, infection, or retained placenta.
The woman in question has some risk factors for uterine atony, such as a large baby and augmentation of labor with Pitocin.
The other choices are wrong because:
A . Retained placental fragments: This is when parts of the placenta remain attached to the uterine wall and prevent it from contracting properly. It is the second most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage.
However, there is no indication in the question that the woman had any difficulty with the delivery of the placenta or that it was incomplete
B. Unrepaired vaginal lacerations: This is when there are tears or cuts in the vagina or cervix that cause bleeding. It is a less common cause of postpartum hemorrhage.
However, there is no indication in the question that the woman had any trauma during delivery or that she was examined for lacerations
D. Puerperal infection: This is when there is an infection in the uterus or other parts of the reproductive tract after delivery.
It can cause fever, pain, and bleeding. It is a rare cause of postpartum hemorrhage.
However, there is no indication in the question that the woman had any signs or symptoms of infection, such as fever, chills, or foul-smelling discharge.
Normal ranges for blood loss after delivery are less than 500 mL for vaginal birth and less than 1000 mL for C-section.
Any amount above these thresholds can be considered postpartum hemorrhage and requires prompt evaluation and treatment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is E
Explanation
The presence or absence of anxiety is a noninvasive assessment that the RN would perform to evaluate the patient’s psychological status and possible signs of hypovolemic shock.
Anxiety can indicate reduced cerebral perfusion due to blood loss and low blood pressure.
Choice A is wrong because pulse oximetry is a noninvasive assessment that the RN would perform to measure the oxygen saturation of the patient’s blood, not the circulatory status.
Choice B is wrong because heart sounds are a noninvasive assessment that the RN would perform to auscultate the cardiac rhythm and rate of the patient, not the circulatory status.
Choice C is wrong because arterial pulses are a noninvasive assessment that the RN would perform to palpate the strength and quality of the patient’s peripheral pulses, not the circulatory status.
Choice D is wrong because skin color, temperature, and turgor are noninvasive assessments that the RN would perform to observe the skin integrity and hydration of the patient, not the circulatory status.
Normal ranges for pulse oximetry are 95% to 100%, for heart rate are 60 to 100 beats per minute, and for blood pressure are 120/80 mmHg.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This is a normal respiratory change in pregnancy caused by elevated levels of estrogen. Estrogen increases blood flow and causes the nasal mucosa to swell, leading to congestion and nosebleeds. This condition is called pregnancy rhinitis and affects up to 20% of pregnant women.
Choice B is wrong because this is not an abnormal cardiovascular change, and the nosebleeds are not an ominous sign. They are usually harmless and do not affect the pregnancy outcome.
Choice C is wrong because there is no evidence that the woman is a victim of domestic violence.
This is a serious accusation that should not be made without proper assessment and screening.
Choice D is wrong because there is no indication that the woman has been using cocaine intranasally. Cocaine use can cause nasal damage and bleeding, but it can also have other signs and symptoms such as agitation, euphoria, dilated pupils, increased heart rate and blood pressure, and risk of miscarriage or preterm labor.
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