You are admitting a client from a long-term care facility with a new diagnosis of Hepatitis A. He has a history of a cerebral vascular accident (CVA) that has left him incontinent of both urine and stool. Which of the following is the most appropriate level of precautions?

Droplet precautions

Contact precautions

Standard precautions are only necessary as there is no risk of transmission.

Airborne precautions

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason (precautions): Droplet precautions are not the primary recommendation for Hepatitis A, as it is not primarily spread through droplets.
Choice B reason (precautions): Contact precautions are recommended for patients with Hepatitis A due to the risk of fecal-oral transmission, especially in a patient with incontinence.
Choice C reason (precautions): While standard precautions are always necessary, they are not sufficient alone for Hepatitis A, which requires additional precautions due to its mode of transmission.
Choice D reason (precautions): Airborne precautions are not required for Hepatitis A, as it is not spread through the air.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Right arm muscle spasms may be uncomfortable but are not as critical as circulatory issues.

Choice B reason: A temperature of 99.9°F (37.7°C) is slightly elevated but not immediately alarming post-surgery.

Choice C reason: Loss of the right radial pulse could indicate a serious complication such as compartment syndrome, which requires urgent atention.

Choice D reason: Pain with arm movement is expected post-surgery but is not as urgent as loss of pulse.

A. Pre-Renal B. Super-secret double renal failure C. Post-Renal D. Intra-Renal

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Pre-Renal failure is caused by factors external to the kidneys, typically involving reduced blood ﬂow or hydration aﬀecting kidney function. Gentamicin does not typically cause this type of failure.
Choice B reason : 'Super-secret double renal failure' is not a medically recognized type of renal failure.
Choice C reason : Post-Renal failure is due to obstruction of urine ﬂow from the kidneys, which is not typically associated with Gentamicin use.
Choice D reason : Intra-Renal failure, also known as intrinsic renal failure, is caused by direct damage to the kidneys themselves. Gentamicin can cause acute kidney injury due to its nephrotoxic eﬀects, leading to Intra-Renal failure.

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You are admitting a client from a long-term care facility with a new diagnosis of Hepatitis A. He has a history of a cerebral vascular accident (CVA) that has left him incontinent of both urine and stool. Which of the following is the most appropriate level of precautions?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient has had surgical reduction of an open fracture of the right radius this morning. Which assessment findings should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A client with severe sepsis related to an untreated rectal/vaginal fistula is admited to the ﬂoor. She has received two doses of Gentamicin. As luck would have it, she is now in acute renal failure. Which type of renal failure did the Gentamicin cause?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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