Which term best describes sickle cell disease?
autosomal recessive disorder
X-linked genetic disorder
autosomal dominant disorder
inherited disorder
The Correct Answer is A
A. Sickle cell disease is classified as an autosomal recessive disorder. This means that a child must inherit two copies of the mutated gene (one from each parent) to express the disease. Individuals with one normal and one mutated gene are carriers (sickle cell trait) but do not exhibit symptoms.
B. X-linked genetic disorders are caused by mutations on the X chromosome and typically affect males more severely than females, as males have only one X chromosome. Sickle cell disease is not located on the X chromosome; therefore, it is not classified as X-linked.
C. In an autosomal dominant disorder, only one copy of the mutated gene is needed for an individual to express the disease. Sickle cell disease does not follow this inheritance pattern; it requires two copies of the mutated gene, which makes this classification inaccurate.
D. While sickle cell disease is indeed an inherited disorder, this term is broad and could apply to many genetic conditions. It describes the general nature of the disease but does not provide the specificity that "autosomal recessive disorder" does.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Protamine is an antidote for heparin and is used to reverse anticoagulation effects. It is not relevant in the context of administering morphine, which is an opioid analgesic.
B. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that is specifically used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose, including respiratory depression caused by morphine. Having naloxone available is a critical safety measure when administering opioids, as it can quickly counteract the effects if the patient experiences severe sedation or respiratory distress.
C. Neostigmine is a medication used to treat myasthenia gravis and to reverse the effects of non- depolarizing neuromuscular blockers. It is not related to the administration of morphine and does not serve as a reversal agent for opioid effects.
D. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepine sedation. It is not used for opioid reversal and would not be applicable in the context of morphine administration.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. While prioritizing tasks is important, simply instructing the team member to focus on the most necessary tasks does not address the root of the problem. It may not provide the support or resources needed to effectively manage their workload.
B. While this might seem helpful in the short term, it does not empower the team member or address the issue of workload management. Taking on too much responsibility can also lead to burnout for the RN and is not a sustainable solution.
C. This option does not consider the needs of the original team member and may disrupt teamwork or create additional stress for other staff. It’s important to address the workload collaboratively rather than simply redistributing it without context.
D. This is the best initial action. By examining the workload together, the RN can help the team member identify which tasks are most critical and which can be deferred or delegated. This approach fosters collaboration, empowers the team member, and ensures that patient care needs are met efficiently.
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