Which term best describes sickle cell disease?
autosomal recessive disorder
X-linked genetic disorder
autosomal dominant disorder
inherited disorder
The Correct Answer is A
A. Sickle cell disease is classified as an autosomal recessive disorder. This means that a child must inherit two copies of the mutated gene (one from each parent) to express the disease. Individuals with one normal and one mutated gene are carriers (sickle cell trait) but do not exhibit symptoms.
B. X-linked genetic disorders are caused by mutations on the X chromosome and typically affect males more severely than females, as males have only one X chromosome. Sickle cell disease is not located on the X chromosome; therefore, it is not classified as X-linked.
C. In an autosomal dominant disorder, only one copy of the mutated gene is needed for an individual to express the disease. Sickle cell disease does not follow this inheritance pattern; it requires two copies of the mutated gene, which makes this classification inaccurate.
D. While sickle cell disease is indeed an inherited disorder, this term is broad and could apply to many genetic conditions. It describes the general nature of the disease but does not provide the specificity that "autosomal recessive disorder" does.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","D","F"]
Explanation
A. While nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories (NSAIDs) are commonly used medications, they do not typically have a high potential for abuse or addiction. Monitoring these medications for diversion is generally not a primary concern compared to other classifications.
B. Opioids are one of the most commonly abused medication classes due to their pain-relieving properties and high potential for addiction. They are frequently monitored closely for signs of diversion and theft in healthcare settings.
C. Although some antidepressants may have mild abuse potential, they are not generally associated with the same level of diversion or abuse as opioids, benzodiazepines, or stimulants. Therefore, they are not typically monitored as closely.
D. Benzodiazepines are known for their sedative effects and potential for dependency and abuse. They are often misused for their calming effects, making them a priority for monitoring in medication inventories.
E. Anticholinergics are not commonly associated with abuse or diversion. They are used primarily for specific medical conditions and do not have a high potential for addiction, so monitoring these medications is not a primary focus.
F. Central nervous system (CNS) stimulants, such as those used to treat ADHD, have significant potential for abuse and dependency. These medications can lead to feelings of euphoria and are often misused, making them important to monitor closely for diversion.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Collaboration between nurses at different levels is essential for improving client outcomes. By working together, nurses can share their expertise and ensure that clients receive the best possible care.
B. By increasing delegation between nurses at different levels, RNs can focus on high-risk tasks that require their expertise, while LPNs can take on more routine tasks. This can help to improve efficiency and reduce the workload of RNs, leading to better client outcomes.
C. LPNs can safely and effectively perform many low-risk tasks, such as monitoring vital signs and administering medications. Decreasing their workload for these tasks would not necessarily improve client outcomes.
D. RNs should not be overburdened with high-risk tasks. By delegating appropriate tasks to LPNs, RNs can focus on high-risk tasks that require their expertise and ensure that clients receive the best possible care.
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