Which statement would be correct for a patient with type 2 diabetes who was admitted to the hospital with pneumonia?
the patient must receive insulin therapy to prevent ketoacidosis
the patient has islet cell antibodies that have destroyed the pancreas's ability to produce insulin
the patient may have sufficient endogenous insulin to prevent ketosis but is at risk for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome
the patient has minimal or absent endogenous insulin secretion and requires daily insulin injections
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale: The patient with type 2 diabetes admitted with pneumonia might not necessarily need insulin therapy to prevent ketoacidosis.
Choice B rationale: Type 2 diabetes doesn't typically involve islet cell antibodies destroying the pancreas's ability to produce insulin.
Choice C rationale: In this scenario, the patient might have enough endogenous insulin to prevent ketosis but could be at risk for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome due to illness-induced stress.
Choice D rationale: Type 2 diabetes often involves some degree of endogenous insulin secretion, and not all patients require daily insulin injections.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Intubation and mechanical ventilation may be needed if the respiratory muscles are affected by GBS, but this is not a routine intervention at this stage.
Choice B rationale: One of the main treatments of GBS is IV immunoglobulin therapy (IVIG), which involves infusing antibodies from donated blood plasma to block the harmful immune response that damages the nerves. Sandoglobulin is one of the brand names of IVIG used for GBS. IVIG can help shorten the duration and severity of the disease, and improve the recovery rate.
Choice C rationale: Methylprednisolone is a corticosteroid that can reduce inflammation, but it is not recommended for GBS, as it may worsen the condition or increase the risk of infection.
Choice D rationale: NG feeding tube may be required if the patient has difficulty swallowing, but this is also not a standard intervention at this time.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Yeast vaginitis, commonly known as a yeast infection, is typically caused by an overgrowth of Candida albicans, a type of fungus. Candida albicans overgrowth can lead to symptoms like white, thick discharge and itching in the vaginal area.
Choice B rationale: Lactobacillus acidophilus is a bacterium associated with maintaining vaginal health rather than causing yeast infections.
Choice C rationale: Escherichia coli is a bacteria that can cause different types of infections but are not typically associated with yeast vaginitis.
Choice D rationale: Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a bacteria and does not cause yeast vaginitis despite having similar presentation such as pus discharge per vaginally.
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