Which statement would be correct for a patient with type 2 diabetes who was admitted to the hospital with pneumonia?

the patient must receive insulin therapy to prevent ketoacidosis

the patient has islet cell antibodies that have destroyed the pancreas's ability to produce insulin

the patient may have sufficient endogenous insulin to prevent ketosis but is at risk for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome

the patient has minimal or absent endogenous insulin secretion and requires daily insulin injections

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale: The patient with type 2 diabetes admitted with pneumonia might not necessarily need insulin therapy to prevent ketoacidosis.

Choice B rationale: Type 2 diabetes doesn't typically involve islet cell antibodies destroying the pancreas's ability to produce insulin.

Choice C rationale: In this scenario, the patient might have enough endogenous insulin to prevent ketosis but could be at risk for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome due to illness-induced stress.

Choice D rationale: Type 2 diabetes often involves some degree of endogenous insulin secretion, and not all patients require daily insulin injections.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale: This may indicate a different condition such as gastroenteritis rather than Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Nonketotic Syndrome (HHNS).

Choice B rationale: This is more indicative of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) rather than HHNS.

Choice C rationale: A 72-year-old with a history of diabetes, elevated blood glucose, and complaints of thirst and frequent urination might have uncontrolled diabetes, but the absence of severe hyperglycemia and other symptoms specific to HHNS makes this choice less likely.

Choice D rationale: This fits the criteria for HHNS. The infection, missed medication, and extremely high blood glucose levels suggest the possibility of Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Nonketotic Syndrome.

A. A 58-year-old client with gastrointestinal reflux disease B. A 65-year-old client with mild emphysema C. A 72-year-old client with hyperthyroidism D. A 48-year-old client with hypertension

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale: Gastrointestinal reflux disease is not typically a contraindication for sumatriptan.

Choice B rationale: Mild emphysema is not typically a contraindication for sumatriptan.

Choice C rationale: Hyperthyroidism is not typically a contraindication for sumatriptan.

Choice D rationale: Sumatriptan, a medication used for migraines, may elevate blood pressure, so it would be questionable for a client with hypertension.

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Which statement would be correct for a patient with type 2 diabetes who was admitted to the hospital with pneumonia?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Which of the following patients is most likely experiencing Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Nonketotic Syndrome based on their symptoms?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

For which client with severe migraine headaches would the nurse question an order for sumatriptan?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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