Which of the following symptoms reported by a patient taking lovastatin should the nurse prioritize for immediate follow-up?

Diarrhea and flatulence.

Abdominal cramps.

Altered taste.

Muscle pain.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A rationale

Diarrhea and flatulence are common side effects of lovastatin, but they are not typically serious enough to require immediate follow-up.

Choice B rationale

Abdominal cramps can occur with lovastatin use, but they are not usually a sign of a serious problem.

Choice C rationale

Altered taste is a less common side effect of lovastatin and is not typically a cause for immediate concern.

Choice D rationale

Muscle pain can be a sign of a rare but serious side effect of lovastatin called rhabdomyolysis. This condition involves the breakdown of muscle tissue, which can lead to kidney damage. Therefore, this symptom should be prioritized for immediate follow-up.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Initiating bilateral intermittent sequential pneumatic compression devices is not the most appropriate immediate intervention for a patient showing signs of a possible stroke. These devices are typically used to prevent deep vein thrombosis in patients who are immobile, not for stroke management.

Choice B rationale

Raising the head of the bed to 30 degrees and keeping the head and neck in neutral alignment is the correct intervention. This position can help reduce intracranial pressure and facilitate venous drainage. In the case of a suspected stroke, it’s crucial to maintain proper cerebral blood flow.

Choice C rationale

Maintaining elevated positioning of the dependent joints on the affected side is not the immediate priority in stroke management. While it’s important to prevent contractures and maintain functional positioning, the immediate concern is to stabilize the patient’s condition.

Choice D rationale

Obtaining a focused history to determine recent bleeding and use of anticoagulants is important, but it’s not the first intervention. While this information will be necessary for the healthcare provider to determine the appropriate course of treatment, the immediate priority is to manage the patient’s acute symptoms.

Correct Answer is ["21"]

Explanation

Step 1 is: Convert 12 hours into minutes. 12 hours × 60 minutes/hour = 720 minutes.

Step 2 is: Calculate the infusion rate. (1000 mL ÷ 720 minutes) × 15 gtt/mL = 20.83 gtt/min. Therefore, the infusion rate should be approximately 21 gtt/min when rounded to the nearest whole number.

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Which of the following symptoms reported by a patient taking lovastatin should the nurse prioritize for immediate follow-up?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A patient has been prescribed 1 L of Lactated Ringer’s IV to be infused over a 12-hour period. The IV administration set delivers 15 gtt/mL. What should be the infusion rate in gtt/min? (Provide a numerical value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest whole number.)

Correct Answer is ["21"]

Explanation

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