A 44-year-old female patient has been admitted for an abdominal abscess and sepsis.
She has been on mechanical ventilatory support for the last 2 weeks and is due to start ventilator weaning today.
She is currently on pressure support of 25 cm water (H2O) with no mandatory breaths and a fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2) of 35%. What should the nurse do next?
Set up supplemental oxygen delivery.
Increase the fraction of inspired oxygen.
Gather supplies for extubation.
Place a nasogastric tube.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Setting up supplemental oxygen delivery is not the immediate action the nurse should take. The patient’s FiO2 is currently at 35%, which is within the normal range.
Choice B rationale
Increasing the fraction of inspired oxygen is not necessary at this time. The patient’s current FiO2 is within the normal range.
Choice C rationale
The nurse should gather supplies for extubation. As the patient is due to start ventilator weaning, preparing for extubation is the next logical step. This involves having all necessary equipment and personnel ready for the procedure.
Choice D rationale
Placing a nasogastric tube is not the immediate action the nurse should take. While a nasogastric tube can be used to provide nutrition and medication, it is not directly related to the process of ventilator weaning.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]
Explanation
D.
Choice A rationale
Checking capillary refill on bilateral upper extremities can help assess peripheral circulation and identify any potential vascular injuries.
Choice B rationale
Administering morphine 2 mg IV as ordered would help manage the patient’s pain.
Choice C rationale
Performing range of motion exercises may not be appropriate immediately after the fall and before the extent of the patient’s injuries are fully assessed.
Choice D rationale
Administering ondansetron 4 mg IV as ordered can help manage any nausea or vomiting that the patient may experience, which can be a side effect of the morphine or a result of the fall itself. TemazepamTemazepam Explore
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Nitroglycerin is a medication that is commonly used to treat chest pain or angina. However, it is contraindicated in patients who have taken sildenafil (Viagra) within the last 24 hours due to the risk of severe hypotension, or low blood pressure. Sildenafil is a type of medication known as a phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE5) inhibitor, which works by relaxing the muscles in the walls of blood vessels. Nitroglycerin also works by relaxing blood vessels, so the combination of these two medications can cause a dangerous drop in blood pressure.
Choice B rationale
Aspirin is not typically withheld in patients experiencing chest pain. It is often given to patients who are suspected of having a heart attack because it works by preventing blood clots from forming and blocking the blood vessels of the heart.
Choice C rationale
Morphine is often administered to patients experiencing severe chest pain to help relieve the pain and reduce the workload of the heart. It is not typically withheld unless the patient has a known allergy or other contraindication.
Choice D rationale
Heparin is a blood thinner that is often administered to patients who are suspected of having a heart attack to prevent further blood clots from forming. It is not typically withheld unless the patient has a known allergy, other contraindication, or is at high risk of bleeding.
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