A patient with septic shock develops Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC). Which pathophysiological process should the nurse identify as the cause of the coagulation problem?

Production of extra platelets.

Depletion of clotting factors.

Inhibition of red blood cell production.

Activation of complement pathways.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale

Production of extra platelets is not the primary pathophysiological process in Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC). While the body may try to produce more platelets in response to the widespread clotting, this is not the cause of the coagulation problem.

Choice B rationale

Depletion of clotting factors is a key feature of DIC. In the initial phase of DIC, there is an overactive clotting process leading to the formation of small blood clots throughout the body’s blood vessels. This overactive clotting uses up platelets and clotting factors, leading to a state where the body is unable to control bleeding, which is the second phase of DIC34.

Choice C rationale

Inhibition of red blood cell production is not a primary feature of DIC. While DIC can lead to anemia due to blood loss from excessive bleeding, it does not directly inhibit the production of red blood cells.

Choice D rationale

Activation of complement pathways is part of the body’s immune response and is not the primary cause of the coagulation problem in DIC34.

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Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","F"]

Explanation

A.Bone misalignment- The nurse’s notes mention that the collarbone appears out of alignment on the left side. This could indicate a fracture or dislocation and should be investigated further.

B.Decreased range of motion- The client reports an inability to move his left arm. This could be due to the pain or a result of the injury and should be investigated further.

C.Left arm that is cool to touch- Decreased temperature in a limb can indicate poor circulation, which could be a result of the injury. This should be investigated further.

D.Swelling at the site of injury- Swelling and bruising are present on the client’s shoulder. This is a common sign of injury and should be investigated further.

E.Blood pressure of 136/90 mm Hg- While this blood pressure is not extremely high, it is on the higher end of normal. Given the client’s age and the stress of the situation, it would be worth monitoring.

F.Intense pain reported by client- The client reports a pain rating of 10 on a 0 to 10 scale in the left arm. This level of pain is concerning and should be addressed.

G.Oxygen saturation 95% on room air- While an oxygen saturation of 95% is within the normal range, given the client’s recent trauma and reported nausea, it would be prudent to monitor this closely.

Correct Answer is ["3742"]

Explanation

Step 1 is: Convert the child’s weight from pounds to kilograms. 1 pound is approximately 0.453592 kilograms, so 55 lb × 0.453592 kg/lb = 24.9476 kg.

Step 2 is: Calculate the total daily dosage. 150 mg/kg/day × 24.9476 kg = 3742.14 mg/day. Therefore, the nurse should administer approximately 3742 mg each day when rounded to the nearest whole number.

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A patient with septic shock develops Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC). Which pathophysiological process should the nurse identify as the cause of the coagulation problem?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Exhibits The nurse considers the brief interaction with the client and the triage report. What finding(s) should the nurse investigate further? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","F"]

Explanation

A child weighing 55 lb has been prescribed cefotaxime at a dosage of 150 mg/kg/day, to be administered in divided doses every 6 hours. How many mg should the nurse administer each day? (Provide a numerical value only.)

Correct Answer is ["3742"]

Explanation

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