A patient admitted with an acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is receiving eptifibatide, a glycoprotein (GP) IIb IIIa inhibitor.
Which assessment finding poses the greatest risk to the patient?
Blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg.
Presence of hematemesis.
Incontinence with blood in urine.
Unresponsiveness to painful stimuli.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
A blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg is not typically considered a risk for patients receiving eptifibatide. While eptifibatide can cause hypotension, a blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg is within normal limits.
Choice B rationale
The presence of hematemesis, or vomiting blood, poses the greatest risk to the patient. Eptifibatide is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor that prevents platelets from clumping together by blocking the action of certain proteins. This can increase the risk of bleeding, including gastrointestinal bleeding, which could manifest as hematemesis.
Choice C rationale
Incontinence with blood in the urine could indicate a urinary tract infection or other urinary system issue, but it is not typically associated with the use of eptifibatide.
Choice D rationale
Unresponsiveness to painful stimuli is a serious symptom that could indicate a number of issues, including neurological damage or severe illness. However, it is not typically associated with the use of eptifibatide.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While understanding risk factors for osteoporosis is important, it is not the highest priority for an older adult client diagnosed with osteoporosis. The highest priority is ensuring the client’s safety to prevent falls and fractures.
Choice B rationale
While constipation due to immobility can be a concern for clients with osteoporosis, it is not the highest priority for an older adult client diagnosed with osteoporosis. The highest priority is ensuring the client’s safety to prevent falls and fractures.
Choice C rationale
Identifying home safety hazards to be resolved immediately is the highest priority for an older adult client diagnosed with osteoporosis. Osteoporosis increases the risk of fractures, and falls are a common cause of fractures in older adults. Therefore, ensuring a safe environment is crucial.
Choice D rationale
While adding calcium-rich foods to the daily diet can help manage osteoporosis, it is not the highest priority for an older adult client diagnosed with osteoporosis. The highest priority is ensuring the client’s safety to prevent falls and fractures.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A client with a positive Mantoux test and sputum cultures positive for acid-fast bacillus (AFB) is indicative of tuberculosis, an airborne disease. This client would require a room with negative airflow, use of a particulate respirator mask, and adherence to airborne as well as standard precautions.
Choice B rationale
Scabies is a skin infestation caused by a mite. It is transmitted through direct skin-to-skin contact and does not require airborne precautions.
Choice C rationale
Scarlet fever is a bacterial illness that often presents with a rash and is associated with strep throat. It is spread by direct contact with mucus, saliva, or skin sores of a person infected with the bacteria. It does not require airborne precautions.
Choice D rationale
Herpes simplex II lesions are typically sexually transmitted and do not require airborne precautions. Standard precautions would be sufficient.
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