Which of the following medication administration routes has the most rapid onset of action?
Sublingual
Intradermal
Subcutaneous
Intravenous
The Correct Answer is D
Intravenous (IV) administration of medication involves injecting the medication directly into a vein. This route of administration has the most rapid onset of action because the medication is delivered directly into the bloodstream and can be quickly distributed throughout the body.
Options a, b, and c are not correct because they do not have as rapid an onset of action as intravenous administration. Sublingual administration involves placing the medication under the tongue, where it is absorbed into the bloodstream through the mucous membranes. Intradermal administration involves injecting the medication into the top layer of the skin. Subcutaneous administration involves injecting the medication into the fat tissue just under the skin. While these routes can be effective for delivering medication, they do not have as rapid an onset of action as intravenous administration.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist that can be used as an antidote for lorazepam overdose ¹. It works by reversing the effects of benzodiazepines such as lorazepam ¹.
Option A is not correct because naloxone is an opioid antagonist and is not used to treat benzodiazepine overdose.
Option B is not correct because acetylcysteine is used to treat acetaminophen overdose and is not used to treat benzodiazepine overdose.
Option C is not correct because physostigmine is used to treat anticholinergic toxicity and is not used to treat benzodiazepine overdose.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The client's symptoms of high fever, unstable blood pressure, increased confusion, and rigidity are consistent with neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) ⁴. NMS is a rare but life-threatening reaction that can occur in response to neuroleptic or antipsychotic medication ⁴. In this case, the client was taking olanzapine and was recently prescribed chlorpromazine, both of which are antipsychotic medications that can cause NMS ⁴.
Option A is incorrect because accelerated dementia would not cause the sudden onset of these symptoms.
Option B is incorrect because an infection would not explain the sudden onset of these symptoms after starting a new medication.
Option C is incorrect because aspiration would not cause rigidity or unstable blood pressure.
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