A 20-year-old client is admitted for treatment of acute schizophrenia and started on risperidone. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic outcome for this medication?
Orthostatic hypotension and sedation
Decreased delusional thinking and lessened audiovisual hallucinations
Restful sleep and increased coping abilities
Decreased anxiety and improved dietary habits
The Correct Answer is B
Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia ¹. It works by changing the activity of certain natural substances in the brain ¹. A therapeutic outcome for this medication would be a decrease in symptoms of schizophrenia such as delusional thinking and audiovisual hallucinations ¹.
Option A is not correct because orthostatic hypotension and sedation are side effects of risperidone, not therapeutic outcomes ¹.
Option C is not correct because restful sleep and increased coping abilities are not specific therapeutic outcomes for risperidone in the treatment of schizophrenia.
Option D is not correct because decreased anxiety and improved dietary habits are not specific therapeutic outcomes for risperidone in the treatment of schizophrenia.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The statement by the client that indicates an understanding of the medication therapy for Parkinson's disease is that a levodopa/carbidopa combination is used to improve motor function ⁵. Levodopa is converted into dopamine in the brain, helping to control movement ¹. Carbidopa prevents the breakdown of levodopa in the bloodstream so more levodopa can enter the brain ¹.
Option A is incorrect because medication therapy cannot slow the progression of Parkinson's disease.
Option B is incorrect because skipping a dose if the client needs to drive is not recommended.
Option C is incorrect because if dyskinesias occur, the client should not stop the medication immediately without consulting their physician.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The client's symptoms of high fever, unstable blood pressure, increased confusion, and rigidity are consistent with neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) ⁴. NMS is a rare but life-threatening reaction that can occur in response to neuroleptic or antipsychotic medication ⁴. In this case, the client was taking olanzapine and was recently prescribed chlorpromazine, both of which are antipsychotic medications that can cause NMS ⁴.
Option A is incorrect because accelerated dementia would not cause the sudden onset of these symptoms.
Option B is incorrect because an infection would not explain the sudden onset of these symptoms after starting a new medication.
Option C is incorrect because aspiration would not cause rigidity or unstable blood pressure.
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