Which of the following is the primary etiology of Guillain-Barré syndrome?
Viral infection
Genetic predisposition
Autoimmune response
Trauma or injury
The Correct Answer is C
A. Viral infections can trigger Guillain-Barré syndrome but are not the primary cause.
B. There is no strong evidence of genetic predisposition being the primary cause.
C. Guillain-Barré syndrome is primarily caused by an autoimmune response where the body's immune system attacks the peripheral nerves.
D. Trauma or injury is not the primary cause of Guillain-Barré syndrome.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Corticosteroids are not typically used as the initial treatment for Guillain-Barré syndrome.
B. Antibiotics are not effective against Guillain-Barré syndrome as it is not caused by a bacterial infection.
C. Antiviral medications are not relevant for Guillain-Barré syndrome because it is not caused by a viral infection.
D. Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) is the initial treatment of choice as it helps reduce the severity and duration of the symptoms by modulating the immune response.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Weight loss is not a typical manifestation; weight gain due to fluid retention is more likely in SIADH.
B. Hypernatremia is not seen in SIADH; hyponatremia is more common.
C. Oliguria, or decreased urine output, is a characteristic manifestation of SIADH due to excessive antidiuretic hormone.
D. Increased thirst is not a primary symptom of SIADH; fluid retention and dilutional hyponatremia are more significant concerns.
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