Which of the following describes the correct procedure for testing for Kernig's sign?
Rotate the neck to one side while observing the eyes moving to the opposite side.
Passively elevate the leg with extended knee while observing for pain, resistance, or flexion.
Stroke the lateral aspect of the sole of the patient's foot and observe for dorsiflexion of the big toe.
Passively flex the patient's neck forward and observe for hip and knee flexion.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale: Rotating the neck to one side while observing the eyes moving to the opposite side is a procedure for testing for oculocephalic reflex or doll's eye
phenomenon, which indicates brainstem function.
Choice B rationale: This is the correct answer. Kernig's sign is a clinical sign that indicates meningitis, which is an inflammation of the membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord. To test for Kernig's sign, the nurse should flex the patient's hip to 90 degrees and then attempt to extend the knee. A positive Kernig's sign is when the patient
experiences pain in the lower back or hamstring, resists knee extension, or involuntarily flexes the opposite leg.
Choice C rationale: Stroking the lateral aspect of the sole of the patient's foot and observing for dorsiflexion of the big toe is a procedure for testing for Babinski's sign, which indicates upper motor neuron lesion or damage.
Choice D rationale: Passively flexing the patient's neck forward and observing for hip and knee flexion is a procedure for testing for Brudzinski's sign, which also indicates meningitis.
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Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale: While joint deformities are concerning in RA, the immediate attention would be required for an acute, red, hot, swollen joint which could indicate an active inflammatory process.
Choice B rationale: Redness, heat, and swelling in a joint are signs of an acute flare in rheumatoid arthritis and might require urgent intervention to manage the inflammation.
Choice C rationale: Puffy-looking areas behind the knee might indicate joint involvement but might not require immediate attention as much as an acutely inflamed joint.
Choice D rationale: Jaw pain while eating can be a symptom of TMJ involvement in RA, but an acutely inflamed joint would generally take precedence.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Metronidazole is not typically used to treat genital warts caused by HPV.
Choice B rationale: HPV can be transmitted through various forms of sexual contact, including oral sex.
Choice C rationale: Condoms reduce but do not eliminate the risk of HPV transmission. Choice D rationale: Genital warts caused by HPV increase the risk of cervical cancer,
necessitating regular Pap smears for monitoring and early detection.
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