Which of the following best describes the role of osmoreceptors in the regulation of water balance in the body?
Osmoreceptors in the pituitary gland regulate the secretion of cortisol in response to changes in plasma osmolality.
Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus detect high plasma osmolality and stimulate the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which enhances water reabsorption in the kidneys.
Osmoreceptors in the kidneys monitor blood pressure changes and regulate aldosterone secretion to control sodium reabsorption and water balance.
Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus detect low plasma osmolality and inhibit the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to increased urine production.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Osmoreceptors in the pituitary gland regulate the secretion of cortisol in response to changes in plasma osmolality: This is incorrect as the pituitary gland itself does not have osmoreceptors; rather, the hypothalamus contains osmoreceptors.
B. Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus detect high plasma osmolality and stimulate the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which enhances water reabsorption in the kidneys: This is correct. Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus sense changes in plasma osmolality and regulate ADH release to maintain water balance.
C. Osmoreceptors in the kidneys monitor blood pressure changes and regulate aldosterone secretion to control sodium reabsorption and water balance: This is not correct because the kidneys primarily use juxtaglomerular cells to sense blood pressure changes and regulate aldosterone, not osmoreceptors.
D. Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus detect low plasma osmolality and inhibit the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to increased urine production: This is partially correct; osmoreceptors do detect low osmolality, but their inhibition of ADH would decrease urine production, not increase it.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Repeating the same question over and over: This behavior might indicate confusion or lack of understanding but is not a typical anticipated outcome of education. Effective education should lead to better understanding rather than repeated questions.
B. Awareness of COPD manifestations: An anticipated outcome of education for a client with COPD is increased awareness of their condition and its manifestations. This knowledge helps the client manage their symptoms and recognize exacerbations early.
C. Anxiety and restlessness: While some anxiety might be present, effective education aims to reduce anxiety by providing information and strategies for managing COPD. The goal is to increase confidence and knowledge, which can help mitigate anxiety.
D. Motivation and engagement of the client: While motivation and engagement are positive outcomes, they are not the primary focus of initial educational interventions. The primary goal is to ensure that the client is aware of their condition and understands how to manage it effectively.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Hypothermia: Pneumonia typically presents with fever rather than hypothermia. Fever is a common response to infection and inflammation.
B. Bradycardia: Pneumonia usually causes tachycardia rather than bradycardia. Tachycardia is a compensatory response to improve oxygen delivery to tissues.
C. Pulse deficit: A pulse deficit is not a common finding in pneumonia. It is more associated with conditions like atrial fibrillation.
D. Tachypnea: Tachypnea, or rapid breathing, is a common sign of pneumonia. It reflects the body’s attempt to improve oxygenation and compensate for impaired gas exchange.
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