Which nursing assessment confirms that the angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that a patient is taking is effective?

LDL cholesterol levels have decreased

Weight loss of more than 2 pounds/week

Urinary output is increased

Blood pressure has decreased

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: ARBs do not affect the LDL cholesterol levels. They lower the blood pressure by blocking the action of angiotensin II, which is a hormone that causes vasoconstriction and sodium retention. Statins are the drugs that lower the LDL cholesterol levels.

Choice B reason: ARBs do not cause weight loss of more than 2 pounds/week. They lower the blood pressure by blocking the action of angiotensin II, which is a hormone that causes vasoconstriction and sodium retention. Diuretics are the drugs that cause weight loss by increasing the urine output and reducing the fluid volume.

Choice C reason: ARBs do not increase the urinary output. They lower the blood pressure by blocking the action of angiotensin II, which is a hormone that causes vasoconstriction and sodium retention. Diuretics are the drugs that increase the urinary output by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and water in the kidneys.

Choice D reason: ARBs lower the blood pressure by blocking the action of angiotensin II, which is a hormone that causes vasoconstriction and sodium retention. Therefore, a nursing assessment that confirms that the ARB that a patient is taking is effective is a decrease in the blood pressure. This is the correct statement that describes the expected outcome of ARBs.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: This is not a symptom of right heart failure. Hypertension is a risk factor for developing heart failure, but it does not indicate the severity or location of the heart failure.

Choice B reason: This is not a symptom of right heart failure. Dyspnea upon exertion is a symptom of left heart failure, which occurs when the left ventricle fails to pump blood effectively to the lungs.

Choice C reason: This is a symptom of right heart failure. Significant edema to both lower legs and feet is a result of increased pressure in the systemic circulation, which occurs when the right ventricle fails to pump blood effectively to the rest of the body. This causes fluid to accumulate in the dependent areas, such as the lower extremities.

Choice D reason: This is not a symptom of right heart failure. Decreased urine output is a symptom of left heart failure, which occurs when the left ventricle fails to pump blood effectively to the aorta and the rest of the body. This causes reduced renal perfusion and oliguria.

A. exudative (high protein). B. purulent. C. transudative (low protein). D. infectious.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Exudative fluid is not the type of fluid drained from the patient. Exudative fluid is a high-protein fluid that results from inflammation or infection of the pleura. It is usually cloudy and contains white blood cells, bacteria, or blood.

Choice B reason: Purulent fluid is not the type of fluid drained from the patient. Purulent fluid is a thick, yellow-green fluid that results from a bacterial infection of the pleura. It is also known as empyema and contains pus and dead tissue.

Choice C reason: Transudative fluid is the type of fluid drained from the patient. Transudative fluid is a low-protein fluid that results from increased hydrostatic pressure or decreased oncotic pressure in the pleural space. It is usually clear and contains few cells or organisms. It can be caused by conditions such as heart failure, cirrhosis, or nephrotic syndrome.

Choice D reason: Infectious fluid is not the type of fluid drained from the patient. Infectious fluid is a general term that can refer to any fluid that contains microorganisms that cause disease. It can be exudative or purulent, depending on the type and severity of the infection.

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Which nursing assessment confirms that the angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that a patient is taking is effective?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A 72-year-old female has a history of right heart failure caused by a right ventricular myocardial infarction. Which of the following symptoms are specifically related to her right heart failure?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A 60-year-old female with a history of cirrhosis and low serum albumin presents with dyspnea, impaired ventilation, and pleural pain. A diagnosis of pleural effusion is made, and a watery fluid is drained. When giving report, the nurse will refer to this fluid as

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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