Which behavior displayed by a patient receiving a typical antipsychotic medication would be assessed as displaying behaviors characteristic of tardive dyskinesia (TD)?
Falling asleep in the chair and refusing to eat lunch
Grimacing and lip smacking
Having excessive salivation and drooling
Experiencing muscle rigidity and tremors
The Correct Answer is B
A. Incorrect. Falling asleep in the chair and refusing to eat lunch is not indicative of tardive dyskinesia (TD). TD is characterized by involuntary movements, not by changes in sleep patterns or appetite.
B. Correct. Grimacing and lip smacking are characteristic movements associated with tardive dyskinesia. TD is a side effect of long-term use of typical antipsychotic medications, and it involves involuntary, repetitive movements, often involving the face and mouth.
C. Incorrect. Excessive salivation and drooling are not specific to tardive dyskinesia. These symptoms may occur due to various reasons, and TD is primarily associated with abnormal, involuntary movements.
D. Incorrect. Experiencing muscle rigidity and tremors is more characteristic of other side effects or conditions, such as extrapyramidal symptoms, but it is not specific to tardive dyskinesia. TD typically involves repetitive, involuntary movements rather than tremors.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Your child has a chemical imbalance of the brain, which leads to altered thoughts: This is the correct answer. It acknowledges the role of a chemical imbalance in the brain contributing to altered thoughts and hallucinations in the context of schizophrenia.
B. Your child's hallucinations are caused by medication interactions: This explanation is not likely in this context. While medications can have side effects, command hallucinations in schizophrenia are primarily related to the underlying disorder.
C. Your child has too little serotonin in the brain causing delusions and hallucinations: While serotonin is involved in mood regulation, attributing hallucinations solely to low serotonin levels oversimplifies the complex neurobiology of schizophrenia.
D. Your child's abnormal hormonal changes have precipitated auditory hallucinations: Hormonal changes are not considered a primary cause of auditory hallucinations in schizophrenia. The emphasis is on neurobiological and genetic factors influencing brain function.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "I can see that you are angry. Let's discuss ways to approach Peter with your concerns."
This response is empathetic and invites the client to discuss their concerns. However, it doesn't explicitly address the client's request for the nurse to take action. The more appropriate approach would involve the nurse taking direct responsibility for addressing the issue.
B. "Why are you overreacting to the issue?"
This response may be perceived as dismissive and judgmental. It does not validate the client's concerns or address the issue constructively.
C. "You should bring this to the attention of your treatment team."
While involving the treatment team is important, the client has directly approached the nurse with a concern. It is appropriate for the nurse to take the initial step in addressing the issue directly rather than immediately redirecting the client to the treatment team.
D. "I'll talk to Peter and present your concerns."
This is the most appropriate response. It acknowledges the client's concerns, takes responsibility for addressing the issue, and ensures that the client's voice is heard. The nurse can discuss the matter with Peter and work towards a resolution.
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