When entering a client's room to administer an 0900 IV antibiotic, the nurse finds that the client is engaged in sexual activity with a visitor. Which action should the nurse implement?
Leave the room and close the door quietly.
Ignore the behavior and hang the IV antibiotic.
Complete an unusual occurrence report.
Tell the client to stop the inappropriate behavior.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Leave the room and close the door quietly. Respecting the client's privacy is essential. The nurse should leave the room quietly and return later to administer the medication.
B. Ignore the behavior and hang the IV antibiotic. Ignoring the behavior and proceeding with the medication administration would violate the client's privacy.
C. Complete an unusual occurrence report. This situation does not require an incident report; it is a private matter between the client and the visitor.
D. Tell the client to stop the inappropriate behavior. The behavior is not necessarily inappropriate within the context of the client's rights to privacy and intimacy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Instruct the family about withdrawal symptoms. While educating the family about withdrawal symptoms is important for support and understanding, it is not the best initial action when the
client is experiencing severe agitation and tremors. Safety measures should be prioritized.
B. Initiate seizure precautions. Severe agitation and tremors can be signs of benzodiazepine withdrawal, which may progress to seizures. Initiating seizure precautions, such as ensuring a
safe environment, padding side rails, and having emergency medications and equipment readily available, is the priority to prevent injury.
C. Obtain a serum drug screen. While obtaining a serum drug screen may be necessary to confirm benzodiazepine withdrawal, it is not the immediate action needed to address the client's current symptoms and prevent potential harm.
D. Administer naloxone per PRN protocol. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose and is not indicated for benzodiazepine withdrawal. Administering naloxone would not be appropriate or effective in this situation.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Gastric Irritation.
While gastric irritation is a common side effect of prednisone, it is not as critical as some other potential adverse effects and can often be managed with medication or dietary changes.
B. Moon facies.
Moon facies is a sign of Cushing's syndrome, a potential long-term side effect of prednisone, but it does not require immediate reporting compared to more acute symptoms.
C. Abdominal striae.
Abdominal striae (stretch marks) are a long-term side effect of corticosteroids like prednisone, but they are not typically an urgent concern.
D. Rapid weight gain.
This is the correct answer because rapid weight gain can indicate fluid retention, which may be a sign of more serious side effects such as heart failure or severe hypertension. It requires prompt medical attention to prevent further complications.
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