When educating a teenager about ovulation, the nurse would include that ovulation is triggered by a surge in which hormone?
Estrogen.
Progesterone.
Luteinizing Hormone (LH).
Prostaglandins.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Estrogen is a hormone that plays a crucial role in the menstrual cycle and pregnancy. However, it is not the primary hormone that triggers ovulation.
Choice B rationale
Progesterone is a hormone that prepares the uterus for pregnancy after ovulation. It does not trigger ovulation.
Choice C rationale
Luteinizing Hormone (LH) is the hormone that triggers ovulation. A surge in LH levels causes the mature follicle in the ovary to burst and release an egg.
Choice D rationale
Prostaglandins are hormone-like substances involved in pain and inflammation. They do not trigger ovulation.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Bleeding or spotting can accompany implantation. This is a common occurrence and does not necessarily indicate a problem with the pregnancy. It happens when the fertilized egg attaches to the lining of the uterus. Some women may mistake this bleeding for a light period, but it’s a sign of pregnancy.
Choice B rationale
Fertilization typically takes place in the outer third of the fallopian tube. After ovulation, the egg travels down the fallopian tube towards the uterus. If sperm are present in the fallopian tube at this time, fertilization can occur. This is a normal part of the reproductive process.
Choice C rationale
Sperm can remain viable in the woman’s reproductive tract for 2 to 3 days. This means that intercourse does not have to coincide exactly with ovulation in order to achieve pregnancy. The sperm can survive long enough to fertilize the egg when it is released.
Choice D rationale
The statement “Implantation occurs between 2 and 3 weeks after conception” is incorrect and requires intervention by the nurse. Implantation actually occurs about 6-10 days after ovulation, which is less than 2 weeks after conception.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Anomalies in fetal chromosomes can be identified through amniocentesis. This test involves the extraction of a small amount of amniotic fluid, which contains fetal tissues. The chromosomes of the fetus can be examined for abnormalities.
Choice B rationale
Cephalopelvic disproportion refers to a condition where the mother’s pelvis is too small to allow the baby to pass through the birth canal. This condition cannot be identified through amniocentesis. Amniocentesis is a diagnostic procedure that examines the amniotic fluid (not the maternal pelvis or the size of the fetus) to detect chromosomal abnormalities and certain genetic disorders.
Choice C rationale
Fetal gender can be determined through amniocentesis. The test can identify the presence of Y chromosomes, which would indicate a male fetus.
Choice D rationale
Rh incompatibility is a condition that occurs when a mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive. This condition cannot be identified through amniocentesis. Instead, it is typically identified through blood tests of the mother and father.
Choice E rationale
Neural tube defects, such as spina bifida and anencephaly, can be identified through amniocentesis. The test can detect high levels of alpha-fetoprotein, which is often present when a fetus has a neural tube defect.
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