When developing a teaching plan for a client with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes, the nurse should explain that an increased thirst is an early sign of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which action should the nurse instruct the client to implement if this sign of DKA occurs?
Drink electrolyte fluid replacements.
Give a dose of regular insulin as prescribed.
Resume normal physical activity.
Measure urine output over the next 24 hours.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Drinking electrolyte fluid replacements may be necessary if the client is dehydrated due to diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). However, addressing the increased thirst, which is a sign of DKA, should involve insulin administration to correct the underlying problem of high blood sugar.
Choice B rationale:
Giving a dose of regular insulin as prescribed is the most appropriate action to address increased thirst in a client with type 1 diabetes and early signs of DKA. Elevated blood sugar levels are the cause of the increased thirst, and insulin helps lower blood sugar levels.
Choice C rationale:
Resuming normal physical activity may not be advisable when a client is experiencing early signs of DKA. Strenuous physical activity can exacerbate hyperglycemia, and the primary focus should be on insulin administration and rehydration.
Choice D rationale:
Measuring urine output over the next 24 hours is important for monitoring hydration status in a client with DKA. However, the immediate priority is to address the increased thirst and hyperglycemia with insulin therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Aspirin is not typically contraindicated in a client who has taken sildenafil unless there are specific contraindications or allergies. Aspirin is often used in the management of acute chest pain to help prevent blood clot formation.
Choice B rationale:
Heparin is not contraindicated solely because the client has taken sildenafil. Heparin is an anticoagulant commonly used in various clinical settings, including the management of certain cardiac conditions.
Choice C rationale:
Morphine is not necessarily contraindicated based solely on the client's use of sildenafil. Morphine can be used to relieve chest pain in some cases of acute coronary syndrome. However, its use should be carefully evaluated based on the client's overall clinical presentation.
Choice D rationale:
Nitroglycerin should be withheld in this scenario. Sildenafil is a medication used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary arterial hypertension. It can potentiate the vasodilatory effects of nitroglycerin, leading to a severe drop in blood pressure. Concomitant use of nitroglycerin and sildenafil is contraindicated due to the risk of significant hypotension, which can be life-threatening.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker and is expected to decrease heart rate by inhibiting calcium influx into cardiac cells, particularly in the SA (sinoatrial) node, where it can slow down the heart's electrical impulses.
Choice B rationale:
Increased contractility is not an expected outcome of verapamil use. In fact, verapamil's main action is to decrease myocardial contractility, making it useful for treating conditions like angina and atrial fibrillation.
Choice C rationale:
Verapamil is known to dilate coronary arteries, which can improve blood flow to the heart muscle and relieve symptoms of angina.
Choice D rationale:
Reduced blood pressure is an expected outcome of verapamil use due to its vasodilatory effects on peripheral blood vessels. This can be beneficial in treating hypertension and angina.
Choice E rationale:
Relieved chest pain is an expected outcome of verapamil use, particularly in the case of variant angina (Prinzmetal's angina), as it helps to relax coronary arteries and reduce coronary artery spasm, which is a common cause of chest pain in this condition.
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