A nurse is planning care for a client with a phobia.
Which nursing intervention is appropriate for this client?

Encouraging the client to face their fear gradually.

Administering benzodiazepines as needed for acute anxiety.

Providing psychoeducation about the causes and effects of phobias.

Teaching the client relaxation techniques to manage anxiety.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale:

Encouraging the client to face their fear gradually is an appropriate nursing intervention for a client with a phobia. This approach is consistent with exposure therapy, which is a widely recognized and effective treatment for phobias. Exposure therapy involves gradually exposing the client to the feared object or situation in a controlled and supportive environment. By doing so, the client can learn to confront and manage their fear over time. This approach is evidence-based and helps the client build resilience and reduce anxiety.

Choice B rationale:

Administering benzodiazepines as needed for acute anxiety (Choice B) is not the first-line treatment for phobias. While benzodiazepines can provide temporary relief from anxiety symptoms, they do not address the underlying phobia and can lead to dependence and tolerance with prolonged use. Moreover, they are generally reserved for acute anxiety episodes and not considered a primary treatment for phobias.

Choice C rationale:

Providing psychoeducation about the causes and effects of phobias (Choice C) is a valuable component of treatment, but it alone may not be sufficient. Psychoeducation can help clients understand the nature of their phobia and reduce stigma, but it should be combined with evidence-based therapies like exposure therapy for comprehensive care.

Choice D rationale:

Teaching the client relaxation techniques to manage anxiety (Choice D) can be a helpful adjunct to treatment, but it is not the primary intervention for phobias. Relaxation techniques can be part of a broader strategy to reduce anxiety, but the client also needs exposure therapy or cognitive-behavioral therapy to address the phobia directly.

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Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","E"]

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Stopping the heparin infusion immediately is essential when the client's aPTT is significantly elevated (in this case, 120 seconds). A prolonged aPTT indicates a higher risk of bleeding, and discontinuing the heparin infusion is a crucial step in preventing further bleeding.

Choice B rationale:

Administering protamine sulfate is necessary when a client on heparin therapy experiences excessive bleeding or if the aPTT is significantly elevated. Protamine sulfate acts as a heparin antagonist and can reverse the anticoagulant effects of heparin.

Choice C rationale:

Notifying the healthcare provider of the significantly prolonged aPTT is essential because it may indicate a need for adjustments in the heparin dosage or therapy. The provider can determine the appropriate course of action based on the client's clinical condition.

Choice D rationale:

Drawing a prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) level is not necessary in this situation. PT and INR are more relevant parameters when assessing clients on warfarin therapy, not heparin.

Choice E rationale:

Monitoring the client for signs and symptoms of bleeding is crucial when the aPTT is prolonged, as it indicates a higher risk of bleeding. This action allows for early detection and intervention to prevent complications.

A. A 70-year-old female presents to the emergency department triage with a noticeable facial droop and garbled speech. B. A 70-year-old female presents to the emergency department triage with a noticeable facial droop and garbled speech. C. A 70-year-old female presents to the emergency department triage with a noticeable facial droop and garbled speech. D. After having a few drinks at a local seafood restaurant, the client’s husband noticed his wife’s speech became difficult to understand. E. 1915: Client arrives via personal car to emergency department with facial drooping and garbled speech.

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","E"]

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

The client’s presentation of a noticeable facial droop and garbled speech are classic symptoms of a stroke. These symptoms indicate that the brain is not receiving enough oxygen, which can lead to permanent damage if not treated immediately. Therefore, this client requires immediate health interventions.

Choice B rationale:

This choice is identical to Choice A. The client’s noticeable facial droop and garbled speech are indicative of a stroke and require immediate attention.

Choice C rationale:

This choice is also identical to Choices A and B. The client’s symptoms are indicative of a stroke, which is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention.

Choice D rationale:

While the change in the client’s speech after having a few drinks at a restaurant could be due to alcohol consumption, it could also be a symptom of a stroke, especially when combined with the facial droop. However, this choice does not directly indicate the need for immediate health interventions as it lacks the specificity of the symptoms compared to Choices A, B, and C.

Choice E rationale:

The time of arrival and mode of transportation do not directly indicate the need for immediate health interventions. However, the mention of facial drooping and garbled speech upon arrival at the emergency department reinforces the urgency of the situation, as these are classic symptoms of a stroke. In conclusion, Choices A, B, C, and E all highlight data that indicate the client is in need of immediate health interventions due to potential stroke symptoms. It’s important to note that strokes require immediate medical attention to minimize brain damage and potential complications. Normal ranges for lab parameters would not apply in this scenario as it’s based on clinical observations rather than laboratory findings.

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A nurse is planning care for a client with a phobia. Which nursing intervention is appropriate for this client?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving intravenous unfractionated heparin. The nurse notes that the client’s activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 120 seconds. What are the appropriate nursing actions in this situation? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","E"]

Explanation

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","E"]

Explanation

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A nurse is planning care for a client with a phobia.
Which nursing intervention is appropriate for this client?