A 70-year-old female presents to the emergency department triage with a noticeable facial droop and garbled speech.
After having a few drinks at a local seafood restaurant, the client’s husband noticed his wife’s speech became difficult to understand.
The triage nurse does a rapid assessment of the client.
1915: Client arrives via personal car to emergency department with facial drooping and garbled speech.
Click to highlight the data that indicate the client is in need of immediate health interventions.
A 70-year-old female presents to the emergency department triage with a noticeable facial droop and garbled speech.
A 70-year-old female presents to the emergency department triage with a noticeable facial droop and garbled speech.
A 70-year-old female presents to the emergency department triage with a noticeable facial droop and garbled speech.
After having a few drinks at a local seafood restaurant, the client’s husband noticed his wife’s speech became difficult to understand.
1915: Client arrives via personal car to emergency department with facial drooping and garbled speech.
Correct Answer : A,B,C,E
Choice A rationale:
The client’s presentation of a noticeable facial droop and garbled speech are classic symptoms of a stroke. These symptoms indicate that the brain is not receiving enough oxygen, which can lead to permanent damage if not treated immediately. Therefore, this client requires immediate health interventions.
Choice B rationale:
This choice is identical to Choice A. The client’s noticeable facial droop and garbled speech are indicative of a stroke and require immediate attention.
Choice C rationale:
This choice is also identical to Choices A and B. The client’s symptoms are indicative of a stroke, which is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention.
Choice D rationale:
While the change in the client’s speech after having a few drinks at a restaurant could be due to alcohol consumption, it could also be a symptom of a stroke, especially when combined with the facial droop. However, this choice does not directly indicate the need for immediate health interventions as it lacks the specificity of the symptoms compared to Choices A, B, and C.
Choice E rationale:
The time of arrival and mode of transportation do not directly indicate the need for immediate health interventions. However, the mention of facial drooping and garbled speech upon arrival at the emergency department reinforces the urgency of the situation, as these are classic symptoms of a stroke. In conclusion, Choices A, B, C, and E all highlight data that indicate the client is in need of immediate health interventions due to potential stroke symptoms. It’s important to note that strokes require immediate medical attention to minimize brain damage and potential complications. Normal ranges for lab parameters would not apply in this scenario as it’s based on clinical observations rather than laboratory findings.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This is the correct answer because it is the best way to assess for signs of ototoxicity, which is a potential adverse effect of aminoglycosides. Ototoxicity is the damage or injury to the inner ear or auditory nerve caused by certain drugs or chemicals. It can result in hearing loss, tinnitus, vertigo, or balance problems. Aminoglycosides are a class of antibiotics that are effective against gram-negative bacteria, but they can also cause ototoxicity by interfering with the function of the hair cells in the cochlea. The practical nurse (PN) should monitor the client's hearing by asking about any changes in hearing acuity, ringing in the ears, or difficulty understanding speech. The PN should also perform a hearing test using a tuning fork or an audiometer if available. The PN should report any signs of ototoxicity to the health care provider and discontinue the aminoglycoside as ordered.
a) Check for changes in vision.
This is not the correct answer because it is not related to ototoxicity. Vision is the ability to see and perceive objects and colors using the eyes and the brain. Vision may be affected by various factors, such as age, genetics, eye diseases, injuries, infections, or medications. However, aminoglycosides do not cause vision problems or impairments. The PN should check for changes in vision in a client who is receiving other drugs that can cause ocular toxicity, such as ethambutol, chloroquine, or digoxin.
c) Observe the skin for a rash.
This is not the correct answer because it is not related to ototoxicity. A rash is a change in the color, texture, or appearance of the skin that may be caused by various factors, such as allergies, infections, inflammation, or medications. A rash may present as redness, itching, swelling, blisters, bumps, or scales.
Aminoglycosides can cause skin reactions such as rash or urticaria in some clients who are hypersensitive or allergic to them. The PN should observe the skin for a rash in a client who is receiving an aminoglycoside and report any signs of an allergic reaction to the health care provider. However, a rash is not a sign of ototoxicity.
d) Measure the urinary output.
This is not the correct answer because it is not related to ototoxicity. Urinary output is the amount of urine produced and excreted by the kidneys and bladder. It is an indicator of renal function and fluid balance. The normal range for urinary output is 0.5 to 1 mL/kg/hour for adults. Urinary output may be affected by various factors, such as fluid intake, dehydration, diuretics, kidney disease, or medications. Aminoglycosides can cause nephrotoxicity, which is another potential adverse effect of these drugs. Nephrotoxicity is the damage or injury to the kidneys caused by certain drugs or chemicals. It can impair the kidneys' ability to filter waste products from the blood, resulting in reduced urine production and oliguria. The PN should measure the urinary output in a client who is receiving an aminoglycoside and report any signs of nephrotoxicity to the health care provider. However, urinary output is not a sign of ototoxicity

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Ibuprofen 400 mg every 4 to 6 hours as needed for temperature greater than 100.5 °F (38 °C). This order is questionable because ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can potentially increase blood pressure, which could be harmful to a patient with hypertension. Furthermore, NSAIDs can mask the symptoms of infection, which could delay the diagnosis and treatment of serious infections.
Choice B rationale:
Enalapril 10 mg every morning. This order is questionable because enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used to treat hypertension. However, ACE inhibitors can cause a dry cough, which could exacerbate the patient’s existing cough due to pneumonia. Additionally, ACE inhibitors can potentially cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), so it’s important to monitor the patient’s electrolyte levels.
Choice C rationale:
Supplemental oxygen 10 L/min via nasal cannula. This order is questionable because a high flow rate of oxygen can potentially cause oxygen toxicity or hyperoxia, which can lead to cellular damage. The typical flow rate for a nasal cannula is between 1-6 L/min. A flow rate of 10 L/min may be too high for this patient, especially without a specified target SpO2 range.
Choice D rationale:
Continuous pulse oximetry. This order is appropriate because it allows for continuous monitoring of the patient’s oxygen saturation levels, which is crucial in a patient with pneumonia and shortness of breath.
Choice E rationale:
Send blood for a complete blood count, electrolytes, blood cultures, and procalcitonin. This order is appropriate because these tests can help monitor the patient’s overall health status and response to treatment.
Choice F rationale:
Admit to the medical floor. This order is appropriate because the patient requires hospitalization for treatment and monitoring due to his pneumonia.
Choice G rationale:
Vital signs every 4 hours. This order is appropriate because it allows for regular monitoring of the patient’s vital signs, which can help detect any changes in his condition.
Choice H rationale:
Chest x-ray now. This order is appropriate because a chest x-ray can help confirm the diagnosis of pneumonia and assess its severity.
Choice I rationale:
Sputum culture and sensitivity. This order is appropriate because it can help identify the specific organism causing the pneumonia and determine its antibiotic sensitivity, which can guide antibiotic therapy.
Choice J rationale:
Levofloxacin 500 mg intravenously every 24 hours. This order is appropriate because levofloxacin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic commonly used to treat pneumonia.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
