The practical nurse (PN) is providing care for a client who is receiving an aminoglycoside to treat a bacterial infection.
To assess for signs of ototoxicity, which action should the PN take?
Check for changes in vision.
Monitor the client's hearing.
Observe the skin for a rash.
Measure the urinary output.
The Correct Answer is B
This is the correct answer because it is the best way to assess for signs of ototoxicity, which is a potential adverse effect of aminoglycosides. Ototoxicity is the damage or injury to the inner ear or auditory nerve caused by certain drugs or chemicals. It can result in hearing loss, tinnitus, vertigo, or balance problems. Aminoglycosides are a class of antibiotics that are effective against gram-negative bacteria, but they can also cause ototoxicity by interfering with the function of the hair cells in the cochlea. The practical nurse (PN) should monitor the client's hearing by asking about any changes in hearing acuity, ringing in the ears, or difficulty understanding speech. The PN should also perform a hearing test using a tuning fork or an audiometer if available. The PN should report any signs of ototoxicity to the health care provider and discontinue the aminoglycoside as ordered.
a) Check for changes in vision.
This is not the correct answer because it is not related to ototoxicity. Vision is the ability to see and perceive objects and colors using the eyes and the brain. Vision may be affected by various factors, such as age, genetics, eye diseases, injuries, infections, or medications. However, aminoglycosides do not cause vision problems or impairments. The PN should check for changes in vision in a client who is receiving other drugs that can cause ocular toxicity, such as ethambutol, chloroquine, or digoxin.
c) Observe the skin for a rash.
This is not the correct answer because it is not related to ototoxicity. A rash is a change in the color, texture, or appearance of the skin that may be caused by various factors, such as allergies, infections, inflammation, or medications. A rash may present as redness, itching, swelling, blisters, bumps, or scales.
Aminoglycosides can cause skin reactions such as rash or urticaria in some clients who are hypersensitive or allergic to them. The PN should observe the skin for a rash in a client who is receiving an aminoglycoside and report any signs of an allergic reaction to the health care provider. However, a rash is not a sign of ototoxicity.
d) Measure the urinary output.
This is not the correct answer because it is not related to ototoxicity. Urinary output is the amount of urine produced and excreted by the kidneys and bladder. It is an indicator of renal function and fluid balance. The normal range for urinary output is 0.5 to 1 mL/kg/hour for adults. Urinary output may be affected by various factors, such as fluid intake, dehydration, diuretics, kidney disease, or medications. Aminoglycosides can cause nephrotoxicity, which is another potential adverse effect of these drugs. Nephrotoxicity is the damage or injury to the kidneys caused by certain drugs or chemicals. It can impair the kidneys' ability to filter waste products from the blood, resulting in reduced urine production and oliguria. The PN should measure the urinary output in a client who is receiving an aminoglycoside and report any signs of nephrotoxicity to the health care provider. However, urinary output is not a sign of ototoxicity
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","H"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A Speech Therapist is crucial in this case. The patient presented with garbled speech, which indicates a possible speech impairment. A speech therapist can evaluate the patient’s speech and language skills and provide therapy to improve any deficits, which can significantly enhance the patient’s quality of life.
Choice B rationale:
A Case Manager is essential in coordinating the patient’s care. They ensure that the patient’s healthcare needs are met and that the patient is receiving appropriate treatments. They also coordinate with various healthcare professionals and may assist with insurance issues or discharge planning.
Choice C rationale:
A Physical Therapist can help the patient regain physical strength and mobility that might have been affected by the stroke. They can provide exercises and treatments to improve balance, coordination, and muscle strength, which can help the patient regain independence in their daily activities.
Choice D rationale:
A Pharmacy Technician is not typically involved in direct patient care or recovery. Their role is more focused on assisting pharmacists with dispensing medication and other administrative tasks in a pharmacy setting.
Choice E rationale:
The Chief Nursing Officer (CNO) is a high-level executive role that oversees nursing staff across an entire healthcare organization. While they play a crucial role in ensuring quality nursing care, they would not be directly involved in individual patient recovery.
Choice F rationale:
A Respiratory Therapist could be helpful if the patient had respiratory issues or complications related to the stroke, but given the information provided, it does not appear that respiratory therapy is needed in this case.
Choice G rationale:
A Medical Assistant typically performs administrative and clinical tasks in healthcare settings but does not specialize in rehabilitation or recovery care for stroke patients.
Choice H rationale:
An Occupational Therapist is vital for stroke recovery. They can help the patient regain skills needed for daily living activities that might have been affected by the stroke, such as eating, dressing, and bathing. They can also provide strategies to compensate for any lasting deficits from the stroke. In summary, for a comprehensive recovery plan for this patient who has had a stroke, an interdisciplinary team involving a Speech Therapist (A), Case Manager (B), Physical Therapist ©, and Occupational Therapist (H) would be most beneficial.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker and is expected to decrease heart rate by inhibiting calcium influx into cardiac cells, particularly in the SA (sinoatrial) node, where it can slow down the heart's electrical impulses.
Choice B rationale:
Increased contractility is not an expected outcome of verapamil use. In fact, verapamil's main action is to decrease myocardial contractility, making it useful for treating conditions like angina and atrial fibrillation.
Choice C rationale:
Verapamil is known to dilate coronary arteries, which can improve blood flow to the heart muscle and relieve symptoms of angina.
Choice D rationale:
Reduced blood pressure is an expected outcome of verapamil use due to its vasodilatory effects on peripheral blood vessels. This can be beneficial in treating hypertension and angina.
Choice E rationale:
Relieved chest pain is an expected outcome of verapamil use, particularly in the case of variant angina (Prinzmetal's angina), as it helps to relax coronary arteries and reduce coronary artery spasm, which is a common cause of chest pain in this condition.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today