The practical nurse (PN) is providing care for a client who is receiving an aminoglycoside to treat a bacterial infection.
To assess for signs of ototoxicity, which action should the PN take?
Check for changes in vision.
Monitor the client's hearing.
Observe the skin for a rash.
Measure the urinary output.
The Correct Answer is B
This is the correct answer because it is the best way to assess for signs of ototoxicity, which is a potential adverse effect of aminoglycosides. Ototoxicity is the damage or injury to the inner ear or auditory nerve caused by certain drugs or chemicals. It can result in hearing loss, tinnitus, vertigo, or balance problems. Aminoglycosides are a class of antibiotics that are effective against gram-negative bacteria, but they can also cause ototoxicity by interfering with the function of the hair cells in the cochlea. The practical nurse (PN) should monitor the client's hearing by asking about any changes in hearing acuity, ringing in the ears, or difficulty understanding speech. The PN should also perform a hearing test using a tuning fork or an audiometer if available. The PN should report any signs of ototoxicity to the health care provider and discontinue the aminoglycoside as ordered.
a) Check for changes in vision.
This is not the correct answer because it is not related to ototoxicity. Vision is the ability to see and perceive objects and colors using the eyes and the brain. Vision may be affected by various factors, such as age, genetics, eye diseases, injuries, infections, or medications. However, aminoglycosides do not cause vision problems or impairments. The PN should check for changes in vision in a client who is receiving other drugs that can cause ocular toxicity, such as ethambutol, chloroquine, or digoxin.
c) Observe the skin for a rash.
This is not the correct answer because it is not related to ototoxicity. A rash is a change in the color, texture, or appearance of the skin that may be caused by various factors, such as allergies, infections, inflammation, or medications. A rash may present as redness, itching, swelling, blisters, bumps, or scales.
Aminoglycosides can cause skin reactions such as rash or urticaria in some clients who are hypersensitive or allergic to them. The PN should observe the skin for a rash in a client who is receiving an aminoglycoside and report any signs of an allergic reaction to the health care provider. However, a rash is not a sign of ototoxicity.
d) Measure the urinary output.
This is not the correct answer because it is not related to ototoxicity. Urinary output is the amount of urine produced and excreted by the kidneys and bladder. It is an indicator of renal function and fluid balance. The normal range for urinary output is 0.5 to 1 mL/kg/hour for adults. Urinary output may be affected by various factors, such as fluid intake, dehydration, diuretics, kidney disease, or medications. Aminoglycosides can cause nephrotoxicity, which is another potential adverse effect of these drugs. Nephrotoxicity is the damage or injury to the kidneys caused by certain drugs or chemicals. It can impair the kidneys' ability to filter waste products from the blood, resulting in reduced urine production and oliguria. The PN should measure the urinary output in a client who is receiving an aminoglycoside and report any signs of nephrotoxicity to the health care provider. However, urinary output is not a sign of ototoxicity

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Observing for signs of depression is the most important intervention for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care. This patient has a history of struggling with weight management, diabetes mellitus, and hypertension, and is now approved for gastroplasty. Weight management surgery can have significant psychological implications, and patients may experience depression or other emotional issues. Identifying signs of depression and providing appropriate support and resources is crucial for the client's overall well-being and successful outcomes.
Choice B rationale:
Monitoring for urinary incontinence is not the top priority in this case. While it's important to assess and address urinary incontinence when necessary, it is not the most critical concern for a client undergoing gastroplasty. Depression and post-surgical complications related to weight management surgery take precedence.
Choice C rationale:
Providing a wide variety of meal choices is not the most important intervention at this stage. After gastroplasty, dietary choices are typically restricted, and the focus is on a controlled and healthy diet. The priority is addressing the psychological and emotional aspects of the client's care, as well as monitoring for surgical complications.
Choice D rationale:
Applying sequential compression stockings is not the most crucial intervention in this situation. While prophylaxis against deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is important, it is not the top priority compared to addressing potential depression and emotional well-being in a client who has struggled with weight management for years.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Ibuprofen 400 mg every 4 to 6 hours as needed for temperature greater than 100.5 °F (38 °C). This order is questionable because ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can potentially increase blood pressure, which could be harmful to a patient with hypertension. Furthermore, NSAIDs can mask the symptoms of infection, which could delay the diagnosis and treatment of serious infections.
Choice B rationale:
Enalapril 10 mg every morning. This order is questionable because enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used to treat hypertension. However, ACE inhibitors can cause a dry cough, which could exacerbate the patient’s existing cough due to pneumonia. Additionally, ACE inhibitors can potentially cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), so it’s important to monitor the patient’s electrolyte levels.
Choice C rationale:
Supplemental oxygen 10 L/min via nasal cannula. This order is questionable because a high flow rate of oxygen can potentially cause oxygen toxicity or hyperoxia, which can lead to cellular damage. The typical flow rate for a nasal cannula is between 1-6 L/min. A flow rate of 10 L/min may be too high for this patient, especially without a specified target SpO2 range.
Choice D rationale:
Continuous pulse oximetry. This order is appropriate because it allows for continuous monitoring of the patient’s oxygen saturation levels, which is crucial in a patient with pneumonia and shortness of breath.
Choice E rationale:
Send blood for a complete blood count, electrolytes, blood cultures, and procalcitonin. This order is appropriate because these tests can help monitor the patient’s overall health status and response to treatment.
Choice F rationale:
Admit to the medical floor. This order is appropriate because the patient requires hospitalization for treatment and monitoring due to his pneumonia.
Choice G rationale:
Vital signs every 4 hours. This order is appropriate because it allows for regular monitoring of the patient’s vital signs, which can help detect any changes in his condition.
Choice H rationale:
Chest x-ray now. This order is appropriate because a chest x-ray can help confirm the diagnosis of pneumonia and assess its severity.
Choice I rationale:
Sputum culture and sensitivity. This order is appropriate because it can help identify the specific organism causing the pneumonia and determine its antibiotic sensitivity, which can guide antibiotic therapy.
Choice J rationale:
Levofloxacin 500 mg intravenously every 24 hours. This order is appropriate because levofloxacin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic commonly used to treat pneumonia.
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