The nurse is preparing an older male adult for discharge who does not read and has bilateral hearing loss.

The client's daughter who lives close to her father tells the nurse that she will stop by daily to check on her father.

Which intervention(s) should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply.).

Include the family in the discharge teaching.

Encourage the client to attend reading classes.

Face the client when speaking.

Speak loudly when teaching.

Provide the daughter with written instructions.

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A,C,E

Choice A rationale:

Including the family in the discharge teaching is essential, especially when dealing with a client who has communication barriers such as hearing loss and illiteracy. Involving the daughter in the teaching process ensures that she is aware of the client's care needs and can provide support at home.

Choice B rationale:

Encouraging the client to attend reading classes is not a practical intervention for an older adult with hearing loss. Reading classes may not address the immediate communication needs of the client, and the client's primary caregiver, in this case, is the daughter who will provide daily care and support.

Choice C rationale:

Facing the client when speaking is a crucial intervention when dealing with someone who has hearing loss. By facing the client, the nurse ensures that the client can see their lips and facial expressions, which can aid in lip-reading and understanding the communication better.

Choice D rationale:

Speaking loudly when teaching is not always the best approach for clients with hearing loss. While it may seem intuitive to speak loudly, it can distort speech and make it more challenging for the client to understand. Clear and slow speech, along with visual cues, is often more effective.

Choice E rationale:

Providing the daughter with written instructions is essential, especially when the client has limited reading skills. Written instructions can serve as a reference guide for the daughter, helping her provide care and support to her father accurately.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A bowel patern is the frequency, consistency, and appearance of a person's bowel movements. A normal bowel patern is what's normal for each person, and it can vary depending on factors such as diet, age, physical activity, and health conditions.
A focused gastrointestinal system assessment includes collecting subjective data about the patient's history of gastrointestinal disease, signs and symptoms of gastrointestinal problems, diet and nutrition, and bowel patern. It also includes inspecting and auscultating the abdomen for any abnormalities³.
When a client reports having a bowel movement three days ago, the first action that the practical nurse should implement is to determine the client's usual bowel patern. This will help to evaluate if the client is experiencing constipation or if this is their normal frequency. It will also help to identify any changes or risk factors that may aﬀect the client's bowel function.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer, while options A, C, and D are incorrect.

Option A is incorrect because administering a stool softener without assessing the client's bowel patern may not be appropriate or eﬀective.

Option C is incorrect because encouraging ambulation may help to stimulate bowel activity, but it is not the first action to take.

Option D is incorrect because recommending dietary changes may be helpful for preventing or treating constipation, but it is not the first action to take.

A. Protamine sulfate should be given slowly intravenously within 30 minutes of heparin administration. B. Protamine sulfate should be given rapidly intramuscularly within 60 minutes of heparin administration. C. Protamine sulfate should be given slowly intravenously within 60 minutes of heparin administration. D. Protamine sulfate should be given rapidly intramuscularly within 30 minutes of heparin administration.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Protamine sulfate is an antidote for heparin overdose and should be administered slowly intravenously to avoid rapid hemodynamic changes and potential adverse reactions.Administering it within 30 minutes ensures timely reversal of heparin’s anticoagulant effects.

Choice B rationale:

Administering protamine sulfate rapidly intramuscularly is incorrect because intramuscular administration is not recommended due to the risk of hematoma formation and slower absorption compared to intravenous administration.

Choice C rationale:

While slow intravenous administration is correct, the timing of 60 minutes is less effective compared to 30 minutes for reversing heparin’s effects promptly.

Choice D rationale:

Rapid intramuscular administration is incorrect for the same reasons as Choice B.Rapid administration can cause adverse reactions, and intramuscular administration is not the preferred route.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

When performing a focused gastrointestinal system assessment, the practical nurse (PN) asks a male client when his last bowel movement occurred. The client answers, "Three days ago." Which action should the PN implement first?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

What are some important nursing considerations for this medication? *.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A client is diagnosed with influenza A and is prescribed oseltamivir. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further education?

An adult male was diagnosed with stage IV lung cancer three weeks ago. His wife approaches the nurse and asks how she will know that her husband's death is imminent because their two adult children want to be there when he dies. Which is the best response by the nurse?

A client receiving mechanical ventilation has a pH of 7.26, PaCO2 of 68 mm Hg, and a PaO2 of 92 mm Hg. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

A client with bleeding esophageal varices receives vasopressin intravenously (IV). Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during the IV infusion of this medication?

A nurse is caring for a client who has variant angina and is prescribed verapamil. Which of the following are expected outcomes of this medication? (Select all that apply.)

When caring for an older male client with urinary frequency, which measure is most important for the nurse to implement to help the client prepare to go to bed for the night?

A client with a long history of migraine headaches asks the nurse if there are non-pharmaceutical ways to help obtain pain relief. Which intervention should the nurse offer?

A client who weighs 176 pounds receives a prescription for norepinephrine 2 mcg/min intravenously (IV). The IV bag is labeled, "Norepinephrine 4 mg in dextrose 5% in water (D;W) 1,000 mL." How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump? (Enter numerical value only.).