A college student brings his roommate to the clinic because the roommate has been talking to someone who is not present. The student tells the practical nurse (PN) that his roommate is acting strange.
Which question should the PN ask the client next?
"Are you planning to obey the voices?"
"Have you taken any hallucinogens?"
"When did these voices begin?"
"Do you believe the voices are real?"
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is Choice C
Choice A rationale: This question prematurely assumes the client is experiencing command hallucinations, which are auditory hallucinations instructing the individual to perform specific actions, often dangerous. Scientifically, this bypasses the essential diagnostic step of characterizing the hallucination type. Without understanding onset, frequency, and context, asking about obedience risks escalating paranoia or defensiveness. Psychiatric assessment requires chronological and phenomenological data before evaluating risk. Prematurely probing intent may compromise rapport and hinder accurate clinical evaluation.
Choice B rationale: While substance-induced psychosis is a differential diagnosis, asking about hallucinogen use before establishing the nature and onset of symptoms may be perceived as accusatory. Scientifically, the DSM-5 criteria for substance-induced psychotic disorder require temporal correlation between substance use and symptom onset. Without knowing when the voices began, this question lacks diagnostic precision. A thorough psychiatric history must precede substance screening to avoid bias and ensure accurate etiological classification of hallucinations.
Choice C rationale: Establishing the onset of auditory hallucinations is foundational in psychiatric assessment. Scientifically, the timeline helps differentiate between transient, substance-induced, and chronic psychotic disorders such as schizophrenia. Early onset may suggest prodromal schizophrenia, while abrupt onset could indicate delirium or drug-induced psychosis. Understanding duration also informs risk stratification and treatment planning. This question respects clinical sequencing, allowing the nurse to gather essential data before exploring content, belief, or behavioral response to hallucinations.
Choice D rationale: Exploring the client’s belief about the reality of voices is part of assessing insight, but it should follow initial characterization of the hallucinations. Scientifically, insight evaluation helps determine the severity of psychosis and guides treatment adherence predictions. However, asking this prematurely may confuse or distress the client. Insight is typically assessed after establishing symptom chronology, frequency, and impact. Premature probing of belief risks misinterpretation and may hinder therapeutic engagement in early assessment stages.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Beginning continuous observation for transient episodes of neurologic dysfunction is important in the assessment and monitoring of the client's condition. However, in this scenario, the client is presenting with symptoms suggestive of a possible stroke or cerebrovascular event, and time is crucial. The nurse should prioritize actions that can lead to prompt diagnosis and treatment.
Choice B rationale:
Starting two large bore intravenous (IV) catheters and reviewing inclusion criteria for IV fibrinolytic therapy is the most urgent action. The client's symptoms, including sudden right-sided numbness, weakness, and facial droop, are indicative of a possible ischemic stroke. IV fibrinolytic therapy is time-sensitive and has a limited window of effectiveness. Establishing IV access and determining eligibility for this therapy should be the nurse's top priority to potentially improve the client's outcome.
Choice C rationale:
Administering aspirin to prevent further clot formation and platelet clumping is an important intervention in the treatment of ischemic stroke. However, it should not be the first action in this scenario. The priority is to assess for eligibility for IV fibrinolytic therapy, as this intervention has a more immediate impact on reversing the stroke's effects.
Choice D rationale:
Raising the head of the bed to 30 degrees and keeping the head and neck in neutral alignment is a reasonable nursing intervention to prevent complications such as aspiration and promote optimal cerebral blood flow. However, it is not the most urgent action in this case. The priority should be on assessing and potentially treating the stroke with IV fibrinolytic therapy.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
This statement is incorrect. Antihypertensive drugs typically work by reducing blood pressure through various mechanisms, such as dilating blood vessels, reducing blood volume, or affecting the heart's workload. They do not increase blood flow to the heart and kidneys.
Choice B rationale:
This is the correct answer. Antihypertensive drugs work by affecting different aspects of the cardiovascular system, such as reducing blood vessel constriction (vasodilation), decreasing blood volume, or slowing the heart rate. By affecting these components, they can lower blood pressure.
Choice C rationale:
This statement is incorrect. Antihypertensive drugs can interact with other medications or supplements, potentially causing adverse effects or drug interactions. It's essential for the client to inform their healthcare provider of all medications and supplements they are taking to ensure safe and effective treatment.
Choice D rationale:
This statement is incorrect. Antihypertensive drugs do not cure hypertension but help control it. Clients need to understand that they will likely need to take these medications long-term to manage their blood pressure effectively.
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