A client arrives at a hurricane disaster medical area seeking treatment for diarrhea.
Which source of contamination should the nurse consider when interviewing the client about exposure?
Nosocomial transmission in the medical area.
Food contamination from flood waters.
Drinking water contaminated by sewage.
Close living quarters at evacuation centers.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Nosocomial transmission in the medical area. Rationale: Nosocomial transmission refers to infections that are acquired in healthcare settings. While it's essential for healthcare professionals to be aware of this risk, the client's presentation of diarrhea in a hurricane disaster area is more likely due to environmental factors rather than hospital-acquired infection.
Choice B rationale:
Food contamination from floodwaters. Rationale: In the aftermath of a hurricane, floodwaters can carry contaminants and pathogens, leading to food contamination. This is a significant concern, and the nurse should educate the client about the potential risks associated with consuming food exposed to floodwaters. However, the primary source of contamination for diarrhea is typically waterborne pathogens, which is addressed in choice C.
Choice C rationale:
Drinking water contaminated by sewage. Rationale: During natural disasters like hurricanes, sewage systems can become compromised, leading to the contamination of drinking water sources. This contamination poses a significant risk for diarrheal illnesses, as sewage often contains harmful pathogens. Therefore, the nurse should consider this as the most probable source of the client's exposure.
Choice D rationale:
Close living quarters at evacuation centers. Rationale: Close living quarters in evacuation centers can contribute to the spread of infectious diseases, including diarrheal illnesses. However, in this scenario, the client's chief complaint is diarrhea, and the nurse should prioritize investigating potential sources of waterborne contamination, as this aligns more closely with the client's symptoms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole has a synergistic effect, which means that the two drugs work together to inhibit bacterial growth more effectively than either drug alone. This combination is commonly used to treat urinary tract infections (UTIs) caused by susceptible bacteria.
Choice B rationale:
The combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole does not have an additive effect that reduces the dosage and frequency of administration of each drug. Instead, it is prescribed as a fixed combination with specific dosages of each drug.
Choice C rationale:
The combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole does not have an antagonistic effect that prevents the development of resistance to either drug. In fact, the combination is chosen because it covers a broader spectrum of bacteria and reduces the likelihood of resistance development.
Choice D rationale:
The combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole does not have a selective effect that targets only the bacteria causing the UTI and spares the normal flora. It affects a wide range of bacteria, including both pathogenic and normal flora.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Beginning continuous observation for transient episodes of neurologic dysfunction is important in the assessment and monitoring of the client's condition. However, in this scenario, the client is presenting with symptoms suggestive of a possible stroke or cerebrovascular event, and time is crucial. The nurse should prioritize actions that can lead to prompt diagnosis and treatment.
Choice B rationale:
Starting two large bore intravenous (IV) catheters and reviewing inclusion criteria for IV fibrinolytic therapy is the most urgent action. The client's symptoms, including sudden right-sided numbness, weakness, and facial droop, are indicative of a possible ischemic stroke. IV fibrinolytic therapy is time-sensitive and has a limited window of effectiveness. Establishing IV access and determining eligibility for this therapy should be the nurse's top priority to potentially improve the client's outcome.
Choice C rationale:
Administering aspirin to prevent further clot formation and platelet clumping is an important intervention in the treatment of ischemic stroke. However, it should not be the first action in this scenario. The priority is to assess for eligibility for IV fibrinolytic therapy, as this intervention has a more immediate impact on reversing the stroke's effects.
Choice D rationale:
Raising the head of the bed to 30 degrees and keeping the head and neck in neutral alignment is a reasonable nursing intervention to prevent complications such as aspiration and promote optimal cerebral blood flow. However, it is not the most urgent action in this case. The priority should be on assessing and potentially treating the stroke with IV fibrinolytic therapy.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.