What is the most likely reason a patient would discontinue their prescribed hydroxyurea?
worsening anemia
vasoocclusive pain
gastrointestinal upset
itching/hives
The Correct Answer is A
A. This side effect, known as myelosuppression, is a significant concern and can manifest as anemia.
B. Hydroxyurea is actually prescribed to reduce the frequency of vasoocclusive crises by increasing fetal hemoglobin levels, which helps to prevent sickling of red blood cells. While a patient might experience pain crises while on hydroxyurea, the medication is intended to help manage this issue rather than be a reason for discontinuation.
C. While gastrointestinal upset is also a possible side effect, the risk of severe blood-related complications typically takes precedence when considering the discontinuation of hydroxyurea
D. While allergic reactions like itching or hives can occur with many medications, they are less common with hydroxyurea specifically.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Protamine is an antidote for heparin and is used to reverse anticoagulation effects. It is not relevant in the context of administering morphine, which is an opioid analgesic.
B. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that is specifically used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose, including respiratory depression caused by morphine. Having naloxone available is a critical safety measure when administering opioids, as it can quickly counteract the effects if the patient experiences severe sedation or respiratory distress.
C. Neostigmine is a medication used to treat myasthenia gravis and to reverse the effects of non- depolarizing neuromuscular blockers. It is not related to the administration of morphine and does not serve as a reversal agent for opioid effects.
D. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepine sedation. It is not used for opioid reversal and would not be applicable in the context of morphine administration.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Sickle cell disease is classified as an autosomal recessive disorder. This means that a child must inherit two copies of the mutated gene (one from each parent) to express the disease. Individuals with one normal and one mutated gene are carriers (sickle cell trait) but do not exhibit symptoms.
B. X-linked genetic disorders are caused by mutations on the X chromosome and typically affect males more severely than females, as males have only one X chromosome. Sickle cell disease is not located on the X chromosome; therefore, it is not classified as X-linked.
C. In an autosomal dominant disorder, only one copy of the mutated gene is needed for an individual to express the disease. Sickle cell disease does not follow this inheritance pattern; it requires two copies of the mutated gene, which makes this classification inaccurate.
D. While sickle cell disease is indeed an inherited disorder, this term is broad and could apply to many genetic conditions. It describes the general nature of the disease but does not provide the specificity that "autosomal recessive disorder" does.
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