What is a priority nursing intervention for a woman with severe preeclampsia who is receiving hydralazine IV.
Assess for orthostatic hypotension
Monitor fetal heart rate continuously
Encourage oral fluid intake
Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B. Monitor fetal heart rate continuously. This is because hydralazine is a vasodilator that lowers blood pressure and may cause tachycardia. Tachycardia can affect the fetal heart rate and oxygenation, so continuous monitoring is essential to detect any signs of fetal distress.
Choice A is wrong because hydralazine does not cause orthostatic hypotension, but rather a reflex increase in heart rate and cardiac output.
Orthostatic hypotension is more likely to occur with other antihypertensive drugs such as alpha-blockers or diuretics.
Choice C is wrong because encouraging oral fluid intake may worsen the fluid retention and edema that are common in preeclampsia. Fluid intake should be restricted to avoid pulmonary edema and cerebral edema.
Choice D is wrong because administering oxygen via nasal cannula is not a priority intervention for a woman with severe preeclampsia who is receiving hydralazine IV. Oxygen therapy may be indicated if the woman develops signs of hypoxia, such as dyspnea, cyanosis, or low oxygen saturation. However, oxygen therapy should be used with caution as it may increase oxidative stress and placental vasoconstriction.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. The client’s urine output is at least 30 mL/hr.This indicates that the therapy is effective because magnesium sulfate can cause renal impairment and fluid retention, which can worsen the condition of preeclampsia.
A normal urine output is a sign that the kidneys are functioning well and that the fluid balance is maintained.
Choice A is wrong because the client’s blood pressure may not normalize even with magnesium sulfate therapy.
Magnesium sulfate is mainly used to prevent seizures, not to lower blood pressure.Other antihypertensive medications may be needed to control blood pressure in severe preeclampsia.
Choice C is wrong because the client’s deep tendon reflexes are expected to decrease with magnesium sulfate therapy, as it is a central nervous system depressant.
A normal reflex response is 2+, but a lower response (1+ or 0) may indicate magnesium toxicity, which can cause respiratory depression, cardiac arrest, and coma.
Choice D is wrong because the client’s respiratory rate should be monitored closely with magnesium sulfate therapy, as it can also cause respiratory depression.
A normal respiratory rate is 12 to 20 breaths per minute, but a lower rate (less than 12) may indicate magnesium toxicity, which requires immediate treatment with calcium gluconate.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Methyldopa is a drug that lowers blood pressure by reducing the activity of the sympathetic nervous system.
One of the possible side effects of methyldopa is hypotension, which means abnormally low blood pressure.Hypotension can cause dizziness, fainting, and shock.
Choice A) Bradycardia is wrong because methyldopa does not affect the heart rate directly.Bradycardia means a slow heart rate, which can be caused by other drugs or conditions.
Choice C) Hyperkalemia is wrong because methyldopa does not affect the potassium levels in the blood.Hyperkalemia means high potassium levels, which can be caused by kidney problems or other drugs.
Choice D) Hyperglycemia is wrong because methyldopa does not affect the glucose levels in the blood.Hyperglycemia means high glucose levels, which can be caused by diabetes or other conditions.
Normal ranges for blood pressure are 90/60 mmHg to 120/80 mmHg, for heart rate are 60 to 100 beats per minute, for potassium are 3.5 to 5.0 mmol/L, and for glucose are 70 to 100 mg/dL.
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