The practical nurse (PN) receives shift reports for four newborns in the full-term newborn nursery. Which infant should the PN assess first?
The six-hour-old with a large sacral "stork bite".
The two-day-old with negative Ortolani's sign.
The ten-hour-old with circumoral cyanosis.
The one-day-old with a positive Babinski's reflex.
The Correct Answer is C
Circumoral cyanosis, which is bluish discoloration around the mouth, can be a sign of inadequate oxygenation. It suggests that there may be an issue with the infant's respiratory or cardiovascular system, potentially indicating respiratory distress or a cardiac problem. Prompt assessment and intervention are necessary to determine the cause of the cyanosis and ensure the infant's well-being.
A. The six-hour-old infant with a large sacral "stork bite" refers to a common birthmark caused by dilated blood vessels. While it may be important to assess the birthmark and document its presence, it is not an urgent concern requiring immediate attention.
B. The two-day-old infant with a negative Ortolani's sign refers to a specific maneuver used to assess for developmental hip dysplasia or dislocation. A negative Ortolani sign indicates that there is no evidence of hip dislocation. While it is important to assess the infant's hips and document the findings, it does not require immediate attention.
D. The one-day-old infant with a positive Babinski's reflex refers to an abnormal response in which the infant's toes fan out and the big toe dorsiflexes when the sole of the foot is stimulated. While a positive Babinski's reflex can be a normal finding in infants under a certain age, it is important to assess the infant's neurological status. However, it does not require immediate attention compared to the infant with circumoral cyanosis, which indicates potential respiratory or cardiovascular distress.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The patient experienced a sudden guard while being assisted to the bathroom, which led to their hospitalization. The most appropriate action for the practical nurse (PN) in this situation is to prioritize the patient's safety and well-being. Returning the patient to bed and maintaining bed rest allows for stability and minimizes the risk of further complications or injury. By providing a safe and controlled environment, the PN can monitor the patient's condition and collaborate with the healthcare team to determine the appropriate course of action moving forward.
Options a), c), and d) are not relevant or appropriate in this context.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
To prevent injury in a female client with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) who is transferred to a long-term care facility for physical rehabilitation, the most important action for the practical nurse to implement is to ensure the client has minimal clutter in the room.
ITP is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can result in an increased risk of bleeding and bruising. Clutter in the room can pose a hazard and increase the risk of injury. The client may accidentally bump into objects or trip over items, potentially leading to falls or injuries.
Incorrect:
A- Assessing the client for nerve pain or paralysis is important but may not be directly related to preventing injury in this context. It is essential to address these concerns but not the most important action in preventing injury.
C- Evaluating the client's neurological status after exercising is important for overall assessment and monitoring but does not specifically address the prevention of injury.
D- Monitoring the client's blood cell laboratory values is essential for managing the client's condition but does not directly address preventing injury. It focuses more on the medical management of the client's ITP.
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