The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) tells the practical nurse (PN) that a resident of the long-term care facility is reporting eye pain and photophobia. The resident is being treated for bacterial conjunctivitis. Upon entering the resident's room, the PN observes that the UAP has darkened the room and placed a warm compress over the resident's eyes. Which action should the PN take?
Turn lights on in the room.
Remove the warm compress.
Elevate the head of the bed.
Offer an oral analgesic.
None
None
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B. Remove the warm compress.
Choice A rationale:
Turning the lights on in the room would likely exacerbate the resident’s photophobia (sensitivity to light), causing more discomfort. Photophobia is a common symptom of bacterial conjunctivitis, and keeping the room dim can help alleviate this discomfort.
Choice B rationale:
Removing the warm compress is the correct action. Warm compresses can sometimes be used to relieve symptoms of conjunctivitis, but they are generally more appropriate for viral or allergic conjunctivitis. In the case of bacterial conjunctivitis, warm compresses can potentially worsen the infection by providing a warm, moist environment that promotes bacterial growth. Instead, a cool compress is often recommended to reduce inflammation and discomfort.
Choice C rationale:
Elevating the head of the bed can help reduce swelling and promote drainage, but it is not directly related to the immediate relief of eye pain and photophobia in bacterial conjunctivitis. This action might be more relevant for conditions involving fluid retention or respiratory issues.
Choice D rationale:
Offering an oral analgesic could help manage the resident’s pain, but it does not address the underlying issue of the warm compress potentially worsening the bacterial infection. Pain management is important, but it should be combined with appropriate measures to treat the infection and alleviate symptoms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Glaucoma is a group of eye diseases that damage the optic nerve and cause vision loss. It is often associated with increased intraocular pressure, which can compress the nerve fibers and reduce blood flow to the retina. The most common type of glaucoma, open-angle glaucoma, causes gradual loss of peripheral vision.
The other options are not correct because:
A. Macular edema is a condition that causes swelling and fluid accumulation in the macula, the central part of the retina that is responsible for sharp and detailed vision. It can cause blurred or distorted vision, but it does not affect the optic nerve or the peripheral vision.
B. Cataract is a condition that causes clouding of the lens, which is the transparent structure that focuses light onto the retina. It can cause blurred, dim, or yellowed vision, but it does not affect the optic nerve or the intraocular pressure.
C. Diabetic retinopathy is a complication of diabetes that damages the blood vessels in the retina and causes bleeding, leakage, or scarring. It can cause blurred, fluctuating, or darkened vision, but it does not affect the optic nerve or the intraocular pressure.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is Choice D
Choice A: Excruciating pain
- Rationale: While partial thickness burns can be painful, especially in the first few days, excruciating pain is less likely for a stable patient 3 days post-burn. Pain management is a crucial aspect of burn care, but excruciating pain might indicate deeper burns or complications like infection.
Choice B: Elevated blood pressure
- Rationale: Elevated blood pressure is not a typical complication of a partial thickness burn. In fact, burn patients are more at risk for hypotension (low blood pressure) due to fluid loss.
Choice C: Compartment syndrome
- Rationale: Compartment syndrome is a serious complication that typically occurs with deep burns or traumatic injuries. It's caused by increased pressure within a muscle compartment, restricting blood flow and potentially leading to tissue death. While a possibility, it's less likely for a partial thickness burn 3 days after the injury.
Choice D: Curling's Ulcer
- Rationale: Curling's ulcer is a peptic ulcer (stomach ulcer) that can develop as a complication of major burns. This is because burns trigger a massive inflammatory response, releasing stress hormones that increase stomach acid production, making the stomach lining more susceptible to ulcers. Given the extensive burn area (30% TBSA) and the timeframe (3 days post-burn), Curling's ulcer becomes a significant concern.
Therefore, the correct answer is: Choice D: Curling's Ulcer
Explanation:
- A 30% TBSA partial thickness burn is a significant injury that triggers a systemic inflammatory response.
- Three days post-burn falls within the timeframe when Curling's ulcer can develop due to the increased stress hormones and gastric acid production.
- While pain management and monitoring for compartment syndrome are important, Curling's ulcer poses a more significant threat in this scenario.
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