The practical nurse (PN) receives a report of a stable client who experienced partial-thickness burns over 30% of the body surface area (BSA) 3 days ago.
Which complication is most important for the PN to anticipate?
Elevated blood pressure.
Curling's ulcer.
Compartment syndrome.
Excruciating pain.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice b. “Curling’s ulcer.”
Choice A rationale:
Elevated blood pressure is not a common complication specifically associated with partial-thickness burns. It may occur due to pain or stress but is not the most critical complication to anticipate.
Choice B rationale:
Curling’s ulcer, a type of stress ulcer, is a significant complication that can develop in burn patients due to the stress response and reduced blood flow to the gastrointestinal tract.
Choice C rationale:
Compartment syndrome is more commonly associated with circumferential full-thickness burns rather than partial-thickness burns.
Choice D rationale:
Excruciating pain is a symptom rather than a complication. While pain management is crucial, it is not the most critical complication to anticipate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Systemic autoimmune vasculopathy is not a typical underlying disease pathology associated with a waddling gait and frequent falls in a 5-year-old child. This choice is not relevant to the symptoms described.
Choice B rationale:
Autonomic neuropathy may manifest with a variety of symptoms, including autonomic dysregulation, but it is not a common underlying pathology leading to a waddling gait and frequent falls in a child. This choice is not relevant to the symptoms described.
Choice C rationale:
Impaired neuron function can result in various neurological symptoms, but it does not specifically explain the waddling gait and frequent falls in a 5-year-old child. This choice is not relevant to the symptoms described.
Choice D rationale:
Muscle fiber degeneration is the most appropriate explanation for the symptoms of a waddling gait and frequent falls in a 5-year-old child. These symptoms are indicative of a neuromuscular disorder known as Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD), which involves progressive muscle weakness and degeneration. DMD is characterized by the loss of muscle fibers and is a common cause of a waddling gait and falls in affected children. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer based on the understanding of the underlying disease pathology.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Sinus tachycardia may occur in response to various stressors or physiological conditions but is not directly related to anorexia nervosa or severe malnutrition. It is not the primary pathological process resulting from this condition.
Choice B rationale:
Menstrual cramps are not a pathological process but rather a symptom that may result from hormonal changes or other factors. While amenorrhea (absence of menstrual periods) is a common feature of anorexia nervosa, menstrual cramps are not a primary concern in this context.
Choice C rationale:
Hypertension is not typically associated with anorexia nervosa or severe malnutrition. In fact, individuals with anorexia nervosa often experience hypotension (low blood pressure) due to dehydration and nutritional deficiencies.
Choice D rationale:
Amenorrhea is the primary pathological process resulting from the adolescent's consistent maladaptive behavior of anorexia nervosa. Severe malnutrition and low body weight can disrupt the normal menstrual cycle and lead to amenorrhea. This is a significant concern for individuals with anorexia nervosa and can have long-term health implications.
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