The practical nurse (PN) receives a report of a stable client who experienced partial burn thickness over 30% burns body surface area (BSA) 3 days ago. Which complication is most important for the PN to anticipate?
Excruciating pain.
Elevated blood pressure.
Compartment syndrome.
Curling's Ulcer.
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is Choice D
Choice A: Excruciating pain
- Rationale: While partial thickness burns can be painful, especially in the first few days, excruciating pain is less likely for a stable patient 3 days post-burn. Pain management is a crucial aspect of burn care, but excruciating pain might indicate deeper burns or complications like infection.
Choice B: Elevated blood pressure
- Rationale: Elevated blood pressure is not a typical complication of a partial thickness burn. In fact, burn patients are more at risk for hypotension (low blood pressure) due to fluid loss.
Choice C: Compartment syndrome
- Rationale: Compartment syndrome is a serious complication that typically occurs with deep burns or traumatic injuries. It's caused by increased pressure within a muscle compartment, restricting blood flow and potentially leading to tissue death. While a possibility, it's less likely for a partial thickness burn 3 days after the injury.
Choice D: Curling's Ulcer
- Rationale: Curling's ulcer is a peptic ulcer (stomach ulcer) that can develop as a complication of major burns. This is because burns trigger a massive inflammatory response, releasing stress hormones that increase stomach acid production, making the stomach lining more susceptible to ulcers. Given the extensive burn area (30% TBSA) and the timeframe (3 days post-burn), Curling's ulcer becomes a significant concern.
Therefore, the correct answer is: Choice D: Curling's Ulcer
Explanation:
- A 30% TBSA partial thickness burn is a significant injury that triggers a systemic inflammatory response.
- Three days post-burn falls within the timeframe when Curling's ulcer can develop due to the increased stress hormones and gastric acid production.
- While pain management and monitoring for compartment syndrome are important, Curling's ulcer poses a more significant threat in this scenario.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Troponin I and CK-MB are cardiac enzymes that are released into the bloodstream when the heart muscle is injured or necrotic. Elevated levels of these enzymes indicate that the client has suffered a myocardial infarction (MI) or heart attack. The damaged heart tissue can impair the electrical conduction system of the heart and cause abnormal heart rhythms or dysrhythmias, which can be life-threatening. The PN should monitor the client's cardiac status closely and report any changes to the charge nurse.
The other options are not correct because:
B. The client is not at risk for pulmonary embolism, which is a blockage of a pulmonary artery by a blood clot or other material. Pulmonary embolism does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can cause chest pain, shortness of breath, and hypoxia.
C. The client is not at risk for recurrent long-term angina pain, which is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle due to narrowed or blocked coronary arteries. Angina pain does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can be a warning sign of an impending MI.
D. The lab results do not indicate risk factors for transient ischemic attack (TIA), which is a temporary interruption of blood flow to a part of the brain due to a clot or plaque. TIA does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can cause neurological symptoms such as weakness, numbness, or speech difficulties.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is Choice A:
"Are you planning to obey the voices?.”. Choice A rationale:
The PN should ask the client if he plans to obey the voices because it helps assess the potential risk of harm to himself or others. If the client indicates an intention to follow the voices' commands to harm someone, it indicates a serious concern for safety and may require immediate intervention to protect the client and others.
Choice B rationale:
While asking if the client believes the voices are real is important for understanding the client's perception of the situation, it may not immediately address the risk of harm that the client or others might be facing.
Choice C rationale:
Asking if the client has taken any hallucinogens is relevant to explore possible substance- induced psychosis, but this question should be asked later in the assessment process. The priority is to assess immediate safety concerns related to the client's compliance with the voices' instructions.
Choice D rationale:
Inquiring about when the voices began is important, but it is not the most urgent question in this situation. Although the onset of the symptoms is relevant, addressing the potential for harmful actions should be prioritized.
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