The phase in which the ovarian function and hormone production decline and the patient had a lack of menstrual period for 13 months is known as:

Select one:

Menopause.

Puberty. с. Menarche.

Climacteric

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

a.   Menopause is the natural cessation of menstruation due to declining ovarian function and hormone production.
b.   Puberty is the stage of development when a child's body matures into an adult body capable of sexual reproduction.

c.   Menarche is the first occurrence of menstruation.

d. Climacteric refers to the period of transition from reproductive to non- reproductive stages of life, including perimenopause and menopause

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

a. ROA means right occiput anterior, which would imply that the fetal back is on the mother's right side.
b. RSA means right sacrum anterior, which would imply that the fetal buttocks are in the pelvis inlet and the fetal head is in the fundus.
c. LOA, which means left occiput anterior means that the fetus is in a longitudinal lie, with its head as the presenting part, facing the right posterior quadrant of the mother's pelvis, and its back on the mother's left anterior side. This is one of the most common and favorable fetal positions for delivery.
d. LSP means left sacrum posterior, which would imply that the fetal buttocks are on the mother's left side and slightly rotated toward the back (posterior).

A. Continuous fetal monitoring B. Obtain a daily weight. C. c Assess deep tendon reflexes every hour. D. Ambulate as tolerated

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

a. This is an appropriate order for a client with severe preeclampsia to monitor fetal well-being.
b. This is an appropriate order for a client with severe preeclampsia to monitor fluid status.
c. This is an appropriate order for a client with severe preeclampsia to monitor for signs of worsening preeclampsia.
d. This order may not be appropriate for a client with severe preeclampsia who may be at risk for falls or other complications. The nurse should clarify this order with the provider.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

The phase in which the ovarian function and hormone production decline and the patient had a lack of menstrual period for 13 months is known as:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

When assessing the fetus using Leopold maneuvers, the nurse feels a round, firm, movable fetal part in the pelvis inlet and a long, smooth, and soft surface in the mother's left side close to the midline. What is the likely position of the fetus? Select one:

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is admitting a client who has severe preeclampsia at 35 weeks of gestation and is reviewing the provider's orders. Which of the following orders requires clarification?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The nurse is caring for a woman hospitalized for hyperemesis gravidarum. What should the nurse expect the initial treatment will be? Select one:

A multiparous woman has been in labor for 8 hours. Her membranes have just ruptured spontaneously. The nurse's priority must be to: Select one:

A nurse is caring for a client who is having a nonstress test performed. The fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline is around 130 beats/min, with four accelerations in 20 minutes, lasting 20 seconds each and the FHR increased more than 25 bpm. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform?

A nurse is reviewing the health history of a client who has a new prescription for a combined oral contraceptive (COC). The nurse recognizes that which of the following client medications can interfere with the effectiveness of the COC?

A nurse is caring for a client who has a suspected ectopic pregnancy at 8 weeks of gestation. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect to identify as consistent with the diagnosis?

Because of the effect of cyclic ovarian changes on the breast, the best time for breast self-examination (BSE) is: