The nurse would assess the client diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) for which manifestation of the disorder?

Petechiae

Diarrhea

Intractable vomiting

Urinary incontinence

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A.   Petechiae (small, pinpoint hemorrhages) are a common manifestation of DIC due to the excessive clotting and subsequent breakdown of clotting factors, leading to bleeding into the skin.
B.   Diarrhea is not typically a primary symptom of DIC, although gastrointestinal bleeding can occur in severe cases.
C.   Intractable vomiting is not characteristic of DIC, although it could occur in clients with severe bleeding or complications.
D.   Urinary incontinence is not a direct manifestation of DIC, although it could occur secondary to neurological or other systemic complications.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. This would be concerning, but it is not the correct choice. If a pacemaker is functioning abnormally, it would require an assessment and troubleshooting, not simply a routine rhythm.
B. This is typical for biventricular pacemakers used in heart failure patients, but it would not apply to a patient with a standard pacemaker unless specified. A recent pacemaker placement does not necessarily indicate biventricular pacing.
C. This is correct if only the atrium is paced; however, in the case of a typical pacemaker like DDD (dual- chamber pacemaker), both the atrium and ventricle are paced.
D. This is correct for dual-chamber pacemakers (like DDD), which pace both the atrium and the ventricle to coordinate the heart's rhythm.

A. Perform a 12 lead EKG and request an order for bumetanide 0.5 mg IV B. Administer pantoprazole sodium 40 mg by mouth to decrease GI distress C. Administer carvedilol 10 mg by mouth and reassess in 30 minutes D. Complete the remainder of the assessment and continue to monitor

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. The 12-lead EKG might be unnecessary right now, especially since the client has no other alarming symptoms. Bumetanide is also not indicated for nausea or tachycardia in this scenario.
B. There is no clear indication that the nausea is related to acid reflux or GI distress that would justify pantoprazole.
C. The tachycardia could be physiological, and treating it with a beta-blocker is unnecessary unless there is a more concerning underlying cause (like heart failure or ischemia). The priority here is not pharmacological intervention but monitoring the client's overall condition.
D. This action allows for appropriate monitoring of the client's condition. Sinus tachycardia may resolve on its own without intervention, and the client doesn't exhibit severe symptoms requiring immediate pharmacologic treatment.

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LAB	Result	Normal Range
Potassium	2.8 mEq/L	3.5-5.3mEq/L
Sodium	133 mEq/L	135-145 mEqL
Chloride	90 mEq/L	97-107 mEqL
Glucose	200 mg/dL	70mg/dL to 110mg/dL
Magnesium	2.5 mg/dL	1.6-2.2 mg/dL
Calcium	8.0 mg/dL	8.2-10.2 mg/dL:

The nurse would assess the client diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) for which manifestation of the disorder?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is assessing the client with a recent pacemaker placement. The client's monitor is displaying what type of rhythm?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The nurse is evaluating the following rhythm strip on a client in the telemetry unit. The client is alert and oriented but complains of slight nausea after eating breakfast. What is the nurse's best action?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is assessing a client who has fluid overload. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.)

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