The nurse is evaluating the following rhythm strip on a client in the telemetry unit. The client is alert and oriented but complains of slight nausea after eating breakfast. What is the nurse's best action?
Perform a 12 lead EKG and request an order for bumetanide 0.5 mg IV
Administer pantoprazole sodium 40 mg by mouth to decrease GI distress
Administer carvedilol 10 mg by mouth and reassess in 30 minutes
Complete the remainder of the assessment and continue to monitor
The Correct Answer is D
A. The 12-lead EKG might be unnecessary right now, especially since the client has no other alarming symptoms. Bumetanide is also not indicated for nausea or tachycardia in this scenario.
B. There is no clear indication that the nausea is related to acid reflux or GI distress that would justify pantoprazole.
C. The tachycardia could be physiological, and treating it with a beta-blocker is unnecessary unless there is a more concerning underlying cause (like heart failure or ischemia). The priority here is not pharmacological intervention but monitoring the client's overall condition.
D. This action allows for appropriate monitoring of the client's condition. Sinus tachycardia may resolve on its own without intervention, and the client doesn't exhibit severe symptoms requiring immediate pharmacologic treatment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can be used to manage conditions like atrial fibrillation or hypertension by slowing the heart rate and reducing blood pressure. However, it may not be the most appropriate drug in the acute setting for heart failure with dyspnea.
B. Nitroglycerine is a vasodilator that helps reduce preload and afterload, which can be beneficial in heart failure. However, it primarily works by reducing the workload on the heart and may help with fluid overload but may not directly address anxiety.
C. Verapamil is another calcium channel blocker that slows the heart rate and reduces the heart's workload. While it may be useful for controlling tachyarrhythmias, it is not the best option for managing acute heart failure with severe dyspnea and anxiety.
D. Morphine is an opioid that can be used in acute heart failure to reduce both anxiety and respiratory distress. It works by reducing the sympathetic nervous system response, decreasing heart rate and blood pressure, and providing a sense of calm, which reduces anxiety. It also reduces preload by venodilation and helps manage severe dyspnea.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"C","dropdown-group-2":"D","dropdown-group-3":"D"}
Explanation
Atrial fibrillation: This is a common arrhythmia where the atria quiver instead of contracting normally, leading to irregular heart rhythms.
Amiodarone- an antiarrhythmic medication may be used to control the heart rate or rhythm in atrial fibrillation.
Heparin-an anticoagulant prevent thromboembolic events, such as stroke, anticoagulants like heparin, enoxaparin, or newer agents like rivaroxaban are used.
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