The nurse is caring for a client who received a transfusion of Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) for an acute GI bleed related to accidental wantarin overdose. Which laboratory result would indicate the need for an additional unit of Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) to correct the problem caused by the overdose?
INR = 3.7 (normal 0.9-1.1)
Hemoglobin = 6.3g/dL (normal Female: 11.7-15.5 g/dL: Male: 14-17:3 g/dL)
Fibrinogen = 90mg/dL (normal 200-400mg/dL)
Platelets = 101,000 mm3 (normal 150,000-450,000 mm3)
The Correct Answer is A
A. INR = 3.7: The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is a measure of blood clotting. An INR greater than
3.0 indicates that the blood is not clotting properly, which can be caused by warfarin overdose. An elevated INR requires FFP to correct coagulopathy.
B. Hemoglobin = 6.3g/dL: This is low, indicating anemia, but it is not directly related to warfarin overdose. The primary issue here is coagulopathy, not anemia.
C. Fibrinogen = 90mg/dL: Fibrinogen levels may be decreased in various conditions, but this alone does not necessarily require additional FFP unless it’s below a critical threshold. Fibrinogen is not the main marker for warfarin overdose.
D. Platelets = 101,000 mm3: This platelet count is within the lower end of the normal range but does not indicate that more FFP is needed in response to warfarin overdose.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Counting the number of large squares between R-R intervals and dividing by 30 is not the correct method for estimating the ventricular rate on an ECG strip.
B. Printing a 1-minute ECG strip and counting the QRS complexes (option B) is accurate but unnecessary for a quick estimation.
C. The most common and efficient method for estimating the ventricular rate quickly is to count the number of QRS complexes in a 6-second strip (often marked by two dashed lines) and multiply by 10. This gives an estimate of the heart rate per minute.
D. Counting the number of small squares between QRS complexes and dividing by 1500 is the most accurate method but requires more time and precision than counting QRS complexes in 6 seconds.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can be used to manage conditions like atrial fibrillation or hypertension by slowing the heart rate and reducing blood pressure. However, it may not be the most appropriate drug in the acute setting for heart failure with dyspnea.
B. Nitroglycerine is a vasodilator that helps reduce preload and afterload, which can be beneficial in heart failure. However, it primarily works by reducing the workload on the heart and may help with fluid overload but may not directly address anxiety.
C. Verapamil is another calcium channel blocker that slows the heart rate and reduces the heart's workload. While it may be useful for controlling tachyarrhythmias, it is not the best option for managing acute heart failure with severe dyspnea and anxiety.
D. Morphine is an opioid that can be used in acute heart failure to reduce both anxiety and respiratory distress. It works by reducing the sympathetic nervous system response, decreasing heart rate and blood pressure, and providing a sense of calm, which reduces anxiety. It also reduces preload by venodilation and helps manage severe dyspnea.
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