Lab results
LAB |
Result Day 1 |
Result Day 2 |
Normal Range |
Hemoglobin |
7.1g/dL |
6.2g/dL |
Female: 11.7-15.5 g/dL. |
|
|
|
Male: 14- 17.3 g/dL |
Hematocrit |
26% |
24% |
Female: 36%-48% Male: 42%-52% |
Platelets |
35,000mm3 |
20,000mm3 |
150,000- 450,000mm3 |
RBC |
4.5 mm3 |
3mm3 |
Female: 4.01-5.51 million/mm3 Male: 4.51- |
The nurse is caring for a client, the lab results are listed in the table. The nurse would anticipate the administration of which blood product(s) for this client?
Cryoprecipitate and red blood cells
Platelets and fresh frozen plasma
Packed red blood cells and platelets
Fresh frozen plasma and cryoprecipitate
The Correct Answer is C
A. Cryoprecipitate is indicated for low fibrinogen or clotting factor issues, but the client’s primary issue
here is anemia and thrombocytopenia.
B. FFP is used to replace clotting factors. While it could be considered in certain situations, in this case, the primary concern is the severe anemia and thrombocytopenia.
C. This is the most appropriate choice, as the patient has low hemoglobin (anemia) and a very low platelet count, both of which require packed red blood cells and platelets.
D. This combination is typically used for clotting factor issues, not anemia and thrombocytopenia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. The 12-lead EKG might be unnecessary right now, especially since the client has no other alarming symptoms. Bumetanide is also not indicated for nausea or tachycardia in this scenario.
B. There is no clear indication that the nausea is related to acid reflux or GI distress that would justify pantoprazole.
C. The tachycardia could be physiological, and treating it with a beta-blocker is unnecessary unless there is a more concerning underlying cause (like heart failure or ischemia). The priority here is not pharmacological intervention but monitoring the client's overall condition.
D. This action allows for appropriate monitoring of the client's condition. Sinus tachycardia may resolve on its own without intervention, and the client doesn't exhibit severe symptoms requiring immediate pharmacologic treatment.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. A value of 119 seconds would indicate a therapeutic or even elevated level of heparin, as it is much higher than the normal aPTT range.
B. A value of 98 seconds is still above the normal aPTT range, suggesting that the heparin level is therapeutic, or even too high, but not sub-therapeutic.
C. This is just slightly above the normal range and might be considered a therapeutic range for someone
on heparin, but it’s not sub-therapeutic.
D. This aPTT value is above the normal range but likely not high enough to indicate therapeutic heparin levels, which should typically be between 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal aPTT. A sub-therapeutic level could be indicated with a lower value.
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