The nurse is performing an admission assessment of an older adult client with a history of chronic heart failure. The client exhibits +2 pitting edema of the ankles and bibasilar crackles. Based on these findings what action should the nurse take next?

weigh the client to obtain a baseline for comparison

Insert an indwelling catheter

Draw blood for chemistry studies and a CBC

Administer furosemide 40mg PO

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A.   Weighing the client provides an important baseline for monitoring fluid retention and determining the effectiveness of treatments such as diuretics. Rapid changes in weight can indicate worsening heart failure and fluid accumulation.
B.   Inserting an indwelling catheter is not indicated unless there are concerns about urinary retention or output, which are not the priority here.
C.   Drawing blood for chemistry studies and a CBC is important but it does not directly address the immediate concern of fluid retention and worsening heart failure.
D.   Administering furosemide may be necessary depending on the client's condition, but first establishing a baseline weight is important before making further treatment decisions.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Dopamine at low doses primarily increases renal perfusion, which can lead to improved urine output. An increase in urine output is a key indicator that the medication is effectively improving kidney function and blood flow. This is the most direct way to assess its effectiveness.
B. A decrease in blood pressure is not an expected effect of low-dose dopamine, which should actually help improve perfusion and raise blood pressure.
C. An increase in heart rate is more likely with higher doses of dopamine and is not an optimal indicator of the drug's effectiveness for acute heart failure.
D. Client alertness is important but does not directly reflect the primary effects of dopamine on renal perfusion and cardiac output in acute heart failure.

A. 2nd degree Mobitz Il B. Atrial flutter C. Sinus bradycardia D. 1st degree AV block

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. This type of AV block is characterized by a progressively lengthening PR interval until a QRS complex is dropped (a blocked beat). A PR interval of 0.28 seconds could be seen in 2nd degree Mobitz I (Wenckebach), not Mobitz II, which has a more irregular pattern of dropped beats
B. Atrial flutter: Atrial flutter is a type of arrhythmia characterized by rapid atrial rates (typically around 250-350 beats per minute) with a sawtooth pattern of P-waves. It does not relate to the PR interval, but rather the atrial rhythm.
C. Sinus bradycardia: Sinus bradycardia is characterized by a slower-than-normal heart rate (less than 60 beats per minute), but this does not affect the PR interval directly. A normal PR interval (0.12-0.20 seconds) can still be seen in sinus bradycardia, so the prolonged PR interval in this case makes sinus bradycardia less likely.
D. 1st degree AV block: In 1st degree AV block, the PR interval is consistently prolonged, usually more than 0.20 seconds, but it is still a constant, non-variable delay in the conduction between the atria and ventricles. A PR interval of 0.28 seconds (which is longer than normal but consistent) is characteristic of a first-degree AV block, making it the correct answer.

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LAB	Result	Normal Range
Potassium	2.8 mEq/L	3.5-5.3mEq/L
Sodium	133 mEq/L	135-145 mEqL
Chloride	90 mEq/L	97-107 mEqL
Glucose	200 mg/dL	70mg/dL to 110mg/dL
Magnesium	2.5 mg/dL	1.6-2.2 mg/dL

The nurse is performing an admission assessment of an older adult client with a history of chronic heart failure. The client exhibits +2 pitting edema of the ankles and bibasilar crackles. Based on these findings what action should the nurse take next?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Labs

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The nurse is performing an admission assessment of an older adult client with a history of chronic heart failure. The client exhibits +2 pitting edema of the ankles and bibasilar crackles. Based on these findings what action should the nurse take next?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The client diagnosed with acute heart failure is prescribed an infusion of dopamine at a low dose. Which assessment parameter should the nurse use to best evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The nurse notes that the client's rhythm strip indicates a PR-interval of 0.28 seconds. What is the nurse's analysis of this problem?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Complete the following sentences with the list of drop down The nurse assesses the client's rhythm on the monitor. The patient is unresponsive with no pulse. The nurse identifies the rhythm asdropdown. The nurse's priority action isdropdown

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). When completing an assessment for decreased perfusion from clotting, the nurse would observe for which manifestation?

When using an ECG rhythm strip to quickly estimate the ventricular rate for a client, the nurse should:

Labs

A patient is to receive a continuous infusion of Diltiazem at 5 mg/hr for Atrial fibrillation. The medication is supplied 125 mg of Diltiazem in 125 mL of Iv fluid. At what rate should the nurse set the IV pump? (round to the nearest whole number)

The nurse is caring for a client receiving a heparin infusion for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following lab results would indicate a sub-therapeutic level? An activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of :……. (normal value: 25-35 seconds)

The client with heart failure exhibits bibasilar crackles, dyspnea and a respiratory rate of 26/min. The physician prescribes furosemide 40 mg IV. Which parameter would the nurse use to best evaluate if the client is responding to this medication?

The nurse would assess the client diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) for which manifestation of the disorder?