The nurse prepares to change a patient's medication from an intravenous to an oral form and notes that the oral form is ordered in a higher dose. The nurse understands that this is due to differences in
Bioavailability
Pinocytosis
Tachyphylaxis
Protein binding
The Correct Answer is A
a) Bioavailability refers to the proportion of the drug that reaches systemic circulation when administered by a particular route. The oral route typically has lower bioavailability than the intravenous route due to the first-pass metabolism in the liver. Therefore, when switching from an IV form to an oral form, the dose often needs to be higher to achieve the same therapeutic effect.
b) Pinocytosis is a form of endocytosis where cells absorb fluids and small molecules. While important in drug absorption, it is not the reason why oral doses are higher than IV doses.
c) Tachyphylaxis is a rapid tolerance to a drug after its administration, often requiring higher doses over time, but it does not directly explain the need for a higher oral dose.
d) Protein binding refers to how drugs bind to proteins in the blood, which can affect their distribution. However, this is not the main reason why oral doses are higher than IV doses.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
a) Decreased drug effects are unlikely in liver disease because impaired liver function reduces drug metabolism, leading to higher drug concentrations in the bloodstream.
b) Increased drug effects occur because the liver is responsible for metabolizing many drugs. In liver disease, drug metabolism is slowed, leading to prolonged drug action and potential toxicity.
c) Decreased therapeutic range is not the primary concern. The therapeutic range refers to the safe and effective drug concentration, but liver disease mainly affects drug metabolism and clearance.
d) Increased therapeutic range is incorrect because liver disease does not widen the range of safe drug levels; instead, it increases the risk of drug accumulation and toxicity.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. C-V drugs are considered to have the lowest potential for abuse and are typically used for medications like cough preparations with less than 200 milligrams of codeine per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams. Methadone is not classified under C-V.
B. Methadone is classified as a C-II (Schedule II) controlled substance because it has a high potential for abuse, but it also has accepted medical uses, such as for opioid withdrawal management.
C. C-I drugs are considered to have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse (e.g., heroin, LSD). Methadone is not classified as a C-I drug.
D. C-III drugs have a moderate potential for abuse and are generally used for medications like anabolic steroids or some barbiturates, but methadone is not classified under C-III.
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