The nurse notices a client grimacing while moving from the bed to a chair, but when asked about the pain the client denies having any pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Administer PRN oral pain medication.

Review the pain medications prescribed.

Ask the client what is causing the grimacing.

Monitor the client's nonverbal behavior.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Administer PRN oral pain medication:

Administering pain medication without further assessment may not be appropriate, as the client's pain needs must be fully evaluated before intervening with medication. Additionally, pain medication should be administered based on an accurate assessment rather than solely on nonverbal cues.

B. Review the pain medications prescribed:

While it's important to review the client's pain medications, particularly if the client is exhibiting signs of uncontrolled pain, this intervention should be secondary to further assessment of the client's current pain status.

C. Ask the client what is causing the grimacing:

Asking the client directly about the cause of their grimacing can help clarify their discomfort and provide insight into whether their pain response is being underreported. This approach helps bridge the gap between nonverbal cues and verbal reports.

D. Monitor the client's nonverbal behavior:

While monitoring nonverbal behavior is important, it does not directly address the discrepancy between the client’s grimacing and their verbal denial of pain. This action should be complemented by further assessment to understand the cause of the nonverbal signs.

E. Establish a regular time for going to bed and getting up: This intervention is not relevant to the current situation, as the client is experiencing discomfort while moving.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Document the absence of the radial pulse:

While it's important to document findings accurately, it's also crucial to ensure that blood pressure measurements are obtained correctly. If the radial pulse becomes unpalpable before reaching the expected systolic pressure, further action is needed to obtain an accurate measurement.

B. Release the manometer valve immediately:

Releasing the manometer valve immediately would lead to deflating the cuff and potentially missing the opportunity to obtain an accurate blood pressure measurement. This action is not appropriate at this stage.

C. Inflate blood pressure cuff to 120 mm Hg:

When the radial pulse becomes unpalpable during cuff inflation, it indicates that the cuff pressure is above the systolic pressure. To accurately determine the systolic pressure, the cuff should be inflated to a higher pressure (usually 20-30 mm Hg above the point where the radial pulse disappears) and then slowly deflated while palpating for the return of the radial pulse.

D. Record a palpable systolic pressure of 90 mm Hg:

If the radial pulse is no longer palpable at 90 mm Hg, this suggests that the true systolic pressure is higher than 90 mm Hg. Recording a palpable systolic pressure of 90 mm Hg without further action would likely underestimate the true systolic pressure.

A. Begin the collection the next day. B. Start collecting the specimen with the next void. C. Observe the sample for sediment. D. Empty the sample into the 24 hour container.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Begin the collection the next day:

This option would delay the start of the 24-hour urine collection unnecessarily. Since the client has already begun voiding, it's appropriate to start the collection process with the next void.

B. Start collecting the specimen with the next void:

Since the client has already provided a urine sample, the nurse should discard this initial void and begin the 24-hour collection process with the next void. This ensures that the entire 24-hour period is captured for accurate measurement of creatinine clearance.

C. Observe the sample for sediment:

While observing the sample for sediment may be part of the assessment process, it is not the priority in this situation. The focus should be on initiating the 24-hour urine collection process correctly.

D. Empty the sample into the 24-hour container:

The initial void should not be emptied into the 24-hour container, as this would inaccurately include urine that was not collected over the entire 24-hour period. It's important to start the collection process fresh with the next void to ensure accurate results for creatinine clearance measurement.

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The nurse notices a client grimacing while moving from the bed to a chair, but when asked about the pain the client denies having any pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is obtaining a systolic blood pressure by palpation. While inflating the cuff, the radial pulse is no longer palpable at 90 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The healthcare provider prescribes a 24 hour urine specimen to be collected for creatinine clearance. The client is eager to go home and tells the nurse that the first sample was put in the urinal 2 hours ago. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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