The nurse notes that a client with depression has been more withdrawn and noncommunicative during the past two weeks. Which intervention is most important to include in the updated plan of care for this client?
Engage the client in non-threatening conversations.
Encourage the client's family to visit more often.
Schedule a daily conference with the social worker.
Encourage the client to participate in group activities.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Engaging in non-threatening conversations can help the client feel more comfortable and may encourage communication, which is crucial for clients who are withdrawn due to depression.
Choice B reason: Family visits can be supportive, but the client's withdrawal suggests a need for more direct intervention to encourage communication.
Choice C reason: Scheduling a conference with a social worker is important, but it is not the most immediate intervention for a withdrawn client.
Choice D reason: Group activities may be overwhelming for a client who is noncommunicative and may not be the most suitable initial approach.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","F","G","H"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Preparing for a cesarean delivery is not indicated solely based on the information provided. The patient is at 36 weeks with moderate pre-eclampsia and there are no immediate signs of fetal distress or a need for emergency delivery based on the nurse’s notes.
Choice B reason: Administering calcium gluconate is appropriate if there are signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity, as it acts as an antidote. The patient’s decreased level of consciousness and absent DTRs may suggest magnesium toxicity, making this a correct intervention.
Choice C reason: Obtaining blood pressure is a standard and ongoing requirement for monitoring a pre-eclampsia patient, especially after noting a significant drop in blood pressure from 170/98 mm Hg to 118/78 mm Hg, which could indicate an overcorrection or other issues.
Choice D reason: Stopping the infusion of magnesium sulfate is not indicated at this time. While the patient’s decreased LOC and absent DTRs are concerning, magnesium sulfate is critical for preventing seizures in pre-eclampsia and should not be stopped without clear signs of overdose and physician consultation.
Choice E reason: Increasing IV fluids is not indicated and could be harmful. The patient already has pulmonary edema and increasing fluids could exacerbate this condition, especially in the context of pre-eclampsia where fluid management needs to be carefully balanced.
Choice F reason: Administering oxygen is correct as the patient’s oxygen saturation has dropped from 98% to 93%, and the goal is to maintain it above 96% as per the physician’s orders.
Choice G reason: Obtaining serum magnesium level is correct because it is necessary to monitor for signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity given the patient’s symptoms of decreased LOC and absent DTRs.
Choice H reason: Preparing to prevent respiratory or cardiac arrest is correct as the patient has signs that may suggest impending magnesium sulfate toxicity, which can lead to respiratory depression or cardiac arrest.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Sudden swelling, redness, warmth, and pain are more indicative of acute conditions like deep vein thrombosis rather than chronic arterial symptoms.
Choice B reason: Weeping ulcers on lower legs are more commonly associated with venous insufficiency rather than arterial disease.
Choice C reason: Ankle edema and varicose veins are typically associated with venous disorders, not arterial disease.
Choice D reason: Intermittent claudication, which is pain during walking that subsides with rest, is a hallmark of peripheral arterial disease and is an expected finding in clients with this condition.
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