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The nurse is unable to get an IV line started on a client who is lethargic and unable to follow commands with a blood glucose of 30. The nurse should make what recommendation when giving SBAR report to the prescriber?

A.

Diet cola PO

B.

Dextrose 50% IV

C.

Glucagon IM

D.

Insulin glargine SQ

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: Diet cola PO is not an appropriate recommendation for a client with a blood glucose of 30, because diet cola does not contain any sugar and will not raise the blood glucose level. Moreover, the client is lethargic and unable to follow commands, which means they may have difficulty swallowing and may aspirate the liquid. 

Choice B reason: Dextrose 50% IV is a potential recommendation for a client with a blood glucose of 30, because it can rapidly increase the blood glucose level and reverse the symptoms of hypoglycemia. However, the nurse is unable to get an IV line started on the client, which makes this option impossible. 

Choice C reason: Glucagon IM is the best recommendation for a client with a blood glucose of 30, because it can stimulate the liver to release glucose into the bloodstream and raise the blood glucose level. Glucagon can be given intramuscularly or subcutaneously, which does not require an IV access. Glucagon is usually given as an emergency treatment for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unconscious or unable to swallow. 

Choice D reason: Insulin glargine SQ is not an appropriate recommendation for a client with a blood glucose of 30, because insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that lowers the blood glucose level. Giving insulin to a client with hypoglycemia can worsen their condition and cause coma or death. ⁹


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Related Questions

Correct Answer is ["10"]

Explanation

The nurse needs to administer 775 mg of amoxicillin. The available amoxicillin oral suspension is 400 mg/5 mL, which means there are 400 mg of amoxicillin in every 5 mL of the suspension.

Therefore, for a 775 mg dose, the nurse should administer:

775 mg/(400 mg/5mL) = 9.6875 mL of the suspension

So, the nurse should administer approximately 10 mL (rounded to the nearest whole number).

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Atenolol is a beta blocker that lowers blood pressure and heart rate. The nurse should hold atenolol for this client because the client's heart rate is already low (52 beats per minute), and giving atenolol could cause bradycardia (slow heart rate), which can lead to dizziness, fainting, or heart failure. The nurse should notify the provider and monitor the client's vital signs and cardiac rhythm.

Choice B reason: Captopril is an ACE inhibitor that lowers blood pressure and prevents kidney damage. The nurse should not hold captopril for this client because the client's blood pressure is still high (138/90 mmHg), and captopril could help lower it to the target range. The nurse should administer captopril as prescribed and monitor the client's blood pressure and renal function.

Choice C reason: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that prevents blood clots and reduces the risk of stroke. The nurse should not hold warfarin for this client because the client's INR (a measure of blood clotting time) is within the therapeutic range (2.0 to 3.0), and warfarin could help prevent post-operative complications such as deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism. The nurse should administer warfarin as prescribed and monitor the client's INR and bleeding signs.

Choice D reason: Glipizide is not a medication for this client. Glipizide is an oral hypoglycemic agent that lowers blood sugar levels in people with diabetes. This client does not have diabetes and does not need glipizide. The nurse should check the medication order and the client's medical history and clarify any discrepancies with the provider.

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